Liberty
University BUSI 411 Exam 3 solutions answers right
How
many versions: 12 different versions
Question 1 The quality control improvement
tool that resembles a "fishbone" is:
Question 2 ISO certification is similar to
the Baldrige Award in its emphasis on:
Question 3 A tool that depicts process
variation graphically is a(n):
Question 4 Managers have obligations to a
wide variety of stakeholders such as shareholders, employees, and customers.
When considering outsourcing production to offshore suppliers, managers have to
weigh: (I) cost benefits that might make shareholders wealthier. (II) quality
issues that might make firms less productive and/or products riskier. (III) the
investments already tied up in relationships with existing suppliers.
Question 5 Giving workers responsibility
for quality improvements and authority to make changes is known as:
Question 6 Consider the following
information: The number of runs up and down for the preceding data is:
Question 7 The chair of the operations
management department at Quality University wants to construct a pchart for
determining whether the four faculty teaching the basic P/OM course are under
control with regard to the number of students who fail the course. Accordingly,
he sampled 100 final grades from last year for each instructor, with the
following results: What are the .95 (5 percent risk of Type I error) upper and
lower control limits for the pchart?
Question 8 Which of the following is
associated with consumer's risk?
Question 9 A control chart used to monitor
the fraction of defectives generated by a process is the:
Question 10 Which of the following is not a
step in the quality control process?
Question 11 Inventory information for firm
ABC: What is the expected inventory at the end of April 2008?
Question 12 Essentially, the output of
aggregate planning is the:
Question 13 Which of the following is an
input to aggregate planning?
Question 14 Moving from the aggregate plan
to a master production schedule requires:
Question 15 Aggregate planning in the case
of a highvolume product output business such as a restaurant is directed
toward:
Question 16 The MRP input stating which end
items are to be produced, when they are needed, and what quantities are needed,
is the:
Question 17 Refer to this product tree: If
17 Ps are needed, and no onhand inventory exists for any items, how many Cs
will be needed?
Question 18 Which one of the following most
closely describes net material requirements?
Question 19 The MRP input storing
information on the status of each item by time period (e.g., scheduled
receipts, lead time, lot size) is the:
Question 20 Under lotforlot, order sizes
for component parts are essentially determined directly from which one of the
following?
Question 21 Because courtesy is subjective,
it cannot be considered a factor in service quality.
Question 22 Flexible acceptance sampling
revises the sampling plan in response to actual results.
Question 23 In the master production
schedule, production is planned for the next period whenever the availabletopromise
quantity becomes negative.
Question 24 A bill of materials contains a
listing of all the assemblies, parts, and materials needed to produce one unit
of an end item.
Question 25 MRP, considering inventory
position, bills of material, open purchase orders, and lead times guarantees a
feasible production plan if the inputs to MRP are accurate.
64. A tool that is not used for quality management is
________.
65. The four dimensions of quality that are sometimes used to determine fitness for use of a product are ______.
66. A tool that depicts process variation graphically is a(n) _________.
67. Which isn't a cost of quality?
68. The Deming Prize was established by the _________.
69. Lost production time, scrap, and rework are examples of ________.
70. Warranty service, processing of complaints, and costs of litigation are examples of ________.
71. Costs of inspectors, testing, test equipment, and labs are examples of ________.
72. Loss of business, liability, productivity and costs are consequences of _______.
73. Quality planning and administration, quality training, and quality control procedures are examples of _______.
74. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is to _______.
75. Fixing a problem will often cost money; to minimize these costs it is best to find and fix the problem _______.
76. Deciding how much to invest in the prevention of defects can be analyzed using ________.
77. The Baldrige award is based on seven categories. Which is not one of those?
78. ISO 9000 standards do not have a requirement for ________.
79. A quality circle is ________.
80. ISO 9000 currently requires _____ of a certified organization.
81. The quality control improvement tool which distinguishes between the "important few" and the "trivial many" is __________.
82. The quality control improvement tool that resembles a "fishbone" is ________.
83. TQM stands for:
84. Which of the following is an element of TQM?
85. Management behaviors supporting an organizational culture that encourages continuous improvement include which of the following?
(I) develop a vision statement for the organization
(II) develop a reward system that promotes the philosophy
(III) institute continuous training programs
(IV) make decisions that adhere to the philosophy
86. The tool that is useful in documenting the current process is:
87. The tool that is useful in the collection and organization of data is:
88. A quality improvement technique that involves the sharing of thoughts and ideas in a way that encourages unrestrained collective thinking is:
89. In order for TQM to be successful, it is essential that most of the organization be _________.
90. Which of the following raises quality risks?
91. Focusing attention on the most important problem areas is referred to as:
92. A chart showing the number of occurrences by category would be used in:
A. Pareto analysis
93. Cause-and-effect diagrams are sometimes called:
94. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations, and then modeling your organization after them is known as:
95. Giving workers responsibility for quality improvements and authority to make changes is known as:
96. The typical difference between "quality circles" and "continuous improvement teams" is ________.
97. Which of the following is not a goal of process improvement?
98. Managers have obligations to a wide variety of stakeholders such as shareholders, employees and customers. When considering outsourcing production to offshore suppliers, managers have to weigh __.
I) Cost benefits that might make shareholders wealthier
II) Quality issues that might make firms less productive and/or products riskier
III) The investments already tied up in relationships with existing suppliers
99. Focusing a supply chain on ________________ is a modern way of ensuring high quality inputs and a ready supply of process-improvement ideas.
100. As regards quality risks, which of the following would be least likely to involve outsourcing to less-developed countries?
101. If customer satisfaction doesn't always lead to customer loyalty, firms may need to focus additional effort on __________ strategies.
102. Before a dimension of quality can be made operationally useful, it must be restated in some ___________ form.
65. The four dimensions of quality that are sometimes used to determine fitness for use of a product are ______.
66. A tool that depicts process variation graphically is a(n) _________.
67. Which isn't a cost of quality?
68. The Deming Prize was established by the _________.
69. Lost production time, scrap, and rework are examples of ________.
70. Warranty service, processing of complaints, and costs of litigation are examples of ________.
71. Costs of inspectors, testing, test equipment, and labs are examples of ________.
72. Loss of business, liability, productivity and costs are consequences of _______.
73. Quality planning and administration, quality training, and quality control procedures are examples of _______.
74. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is to _______.
75. Fixing a problem will often cost money; to minimize these costs it is best to find and fix the problem _______.
76. Deciding how much to invest in the prevention of defects can be analyzed using ________.
77. The Baldrige award is based on seven categories. Which is not one of those?
78. ISO 9000 standards do not have a requirement for ________.
79. A quality circle is ________.
80. ISO 9000 currently requires _____ of a certified organization.
81. The quality control improvement tool which distinguishes between the "important few" and the "trivial many" is __________.
82. The quality control improvement tool that resembles a "fishbone" is ________.
83. TQM stands for:
84. Which of the following is an element of TQM?
85. Management behaviors supporting an organizational culture that encourages continuous improvement include which of the following?
(I) develop a vision statement for the organization
(II) develop a reward system that promotes the philosophy
(III) institute continuous training programs
(IV) make decisions that adhere to the philosophy
86. The tool that is useful in documenting the current process is:
87. The tool that is useful in the collection and organization of data is:
88. A quality improvement technique that involves the sharing of thoughts and ideas in a way that encourages unrestrained collective thinking is:
89. In order for TQM to be successful, it is essential that most of the organization be _________.
90. Which of the following raises quality risks?
91. Focusing attention on the most important problem areas is referred to as:
92. A chart showing the number of occurrences by category would be used in:
A. Pareto analysis
93. Cause-and-effect diagrams are sometimes called:
94. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations, and then modeling your organization after them is known as:
95. Giving workers responsibility for quality improvements and authority to make changes is known as:
96. The typical difference between "quality circles" and "continuous improvement teams" is ________.
97. Which of the following is not a goal of process improvement?
98. Managers have obligations to a wide variety of stakeholders such as shareholders, employees and customers. When considering outsourcing production to offshore suppliers, managers have to weigh __.
I) Cost benefits that might make shareholders wealthier
II) Quality issues that might make firms less productive and/or products riskier
III) The investments already tied up in relationships with existing suppliers
99. Focusing a supply chain on ________________ is a modern way of ensuring high quality inputs and a ready supply of process-improvement ideas.
100. As regards quality risks, which of the following would be least likely to involve outsourcing to less-developed countries?
101. If customer satisfaction doesn't always lead to customer loyalty, firms may need to focus additional effort on __________ strategies.
102. Before a dimension of quality can be made operationally useful, it must be restated in some ___________ form.
1. Approving the effort that occurs during the
production process is known as acceptance sampling.
True False
True False
2. Statistical
Process Control is the measurement of rejects in the final product.
True False
True False
3. The
optimum level of inspection occurs when we catch at least 98.6 percent of the
defects.
True False
True False
4. The
optimum level of inspection minimizes the sum of inspection costs and the cost
of passing defectives.
True False
True False
5. Processes
that are in control eliminate variations.
True False
True False
6. High-cost,
low-volume items often require careful inspection since we make them so
infrequently.
True False
True False
7. Low-cost,
high-volume items often require more intensive inspection.
True False
True False
8. A lower control limit must by definition be a
value less than an upper control limit.
True False
True False
9. Attributes
need to be measured, variable data can be counted.
True False
True False
10. The
amount of inspection we choose can range from no inspection at all to
inspecting each item numerous times.
True False
True False
11. The
amount of inspection needed is governed by the costs of inspection and the
expected costs of passing defective items.
True False
True False
12. The
purpose of statistical process control is to ensure that historical output is
random.
True False
True False
13. A
process that exhibits random variability would be judged to be out of
control.
True False
True False
14. If a
point on a control chart falls outside one of the control limits, this suggests
that the process output is non-random and should be investigated.
True False
True False
15. An
x-bar control chart can only be valid if the underlying population it measures
is a normal distribution.
True False
True False
16. Concluding
a process is out of control when it is not is known as a Type I error.
True False
True False
17. An R
value of zero (on a range chart) means that the process must be in control
since all sample values are equal.
True False
True False
18. Range
charts are used mainly with attribute data.
True False
True False
19. Range
charts and p-charts are both used for variable data.
True False
True False
20. A
p-chart is used to monitor the fraction of defectives in the output of a
process.
True False
True False
21. A
c-chart is used to monitor the total number of defectives in the output of a
process.
True False
True False
22. A
c-chart is used to monitor the number of defects per unit for process
output.
True False
True False
23. Tolerances
represent the control limits we use on the charts.
True False
True False
24. "Process
capability" compares "process variability" to the
"tolerances."
True False
True False
25. Control
limits used on process control charts are specifications established by design
or customers.
True False
True False
26. Control
limits tend to be wider for more variable processes.
True False
True False
27. Patterns
of data on a control chart suggest that the process may have non-random
variation.
True False
True False
28. The
output of a process may not conform to specifications even though the process
may be statistically "in control."
True False
True False
29. Run
tests are useful in helping to identify nonrandom variations in a
process.
True False
True False
30. Run
tests give managers an alternative to control charts; they are quicker and cost
less.
True False
True False
31. Statistical
process control focuses on the acceptability of process output.
True False
True False
32. A run
test checks a sequence of observations for randomness.
True False
True False
33. Even
if the process is not centered, the process capability index (indicated by Cpk)
is very useful.
True False
True False
34. The
process capability index (indicated by Cpk) can be used only when the process
is centered.
True False
True False
35. Quality
control is assuring that processes are performing in an acceptable
manner.
True False
True False
36. The
primary purpose of statistical process control is to detect a defective product
before it is shipped to a customer.
True False
True False
37. The
Taguchi Cost Function suggests that the capability ratio can be improved by
extending the spread between LCL and UCL.
True False
True False
38. The
variation of a sampling distribution is tighter than the variation of the
underlying process distribution.
True False
True False
39. The
sampling distribution can be assumed to be approximately normal even when the
underlying process distribution is not normally distributed.
True False
True False
40. Approximately
99.7% of sample means will fall within ± two
standard deviations of the process mean if the process is under control.
True False
True False
41. The
best way to assure quality is to use extensive inspection and control
charts.
True False
True False
42. Control
limits are based on multiples of the process standard deviation.
True False
True False
43. Attribute
data are counted, variable data are measured.
True False
True False
44. The
number of defective parts in a sample is an example of variable data because it
will "vary" from one sample to another.
True False
True False
45. Larger
samples will require wider x-bar control limits because there is more
data.
True False
True False
46. When
a process is not centered, its capability is measured in a slightly different
way. The symbol for this case is Cpk.
True False
True False
47. Range
control charts are used to monitor process central tendency.
True False
True False
48. An
"up and down" run test uses the median as a reference point and
measures the percentage above and below the median.
True False
True False
49. "Assignable
variation" is variation due to a specific cause, such as tool wear.
True False
True False
50. Variation
in a sample statistic collected from a process may be either random variation
or assignable variation - or both.
True False
True False
51. "Quality
of conformance" is concerned with whether a product or service conforms to
its specifications.
True False
True False
52. The
larger the process variation, the tighter the specifications should be.
True False
True False
53. Type
I and Type II errors refer to the magnitude of variation from the
standard.
True False
True False
54. The
greater the capability ratio, the higher the rejects.
True False
True False
55. Non-random
variation is likely whenever all observations are between the LCL and
UCL.
True False
True False
56. Which
of the following quality control sample statistics indicates a quality
characteristic that is an attribute?
A. mean
B. variance
C. standard deviation
D. range
E. proportion
A. mean
B. variance
C. standard deviation
D. range
E. proportion
57. A
time-ordered plot of representative sample statistics is called a:
A. Gantt chart
B. SIMO-chart
C. Control Chart
D. Up-Down Matrix
E. Standard deviation table
A. Gantt chart
B. SIMO-chart
C. Control Chart
D. Up-Down Matrix
E. Standard deviation table
58. A
control chart used to monitor the process mean is the:
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
59. A
control chart used to monitor the fraction of defectives generated by a process
is the:
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
60. A
p-chart would be used to monitor _______.
A. average shrinkage
B. dispersion in sample data
C. the fraction defective
D. the number of defects per unit
E. the range of values
A. average shrinkage
B. dispersion in sample data
C. the fraction defective
D. the number of defects per unit
E. the range of values
61. A
c-chart is used for:
A. means
B. ranges
C. percent defective
D. fraction defective per unit
E. number of defects per unit
A. means
B. ranges
C. percent defective
D. fraction defective per unit
E. number of defects per unit
62. A
control chart used to monitor the number of defects per unit is the:
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
A. p-chart
B. R-chart
C. x-bar chart
D. c-chart
E. Gantt chart
63. A
point which is outside of the lower control limit on an R-chart:
A. is an indication that no cause of variation is present
B. should be ignored because it signifies better than average quality
C. should be investigated because an assignable cause of variation might be present
D. should be ignored unless another point is outside that limit
E. is impossible since the lower limit is always zero
A. is an indication that no cause of variation is present
B. should be ignored because it signifies better than average quality
C. should be investigated because an assignable cause of variation might be present
D. should be ignored unless another point is outside that limit
E. is impossible since the lower limit is always zero
64. If a
process is performing as it should, it is still possible to obtain observations
which are outside of which limits?
(I) tolerances
(II) control limits
(III) process variability
A. I
B. II
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
(I) tolerances
(II) control limits
(III) process variability
A. I
B. II
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
65. Which
of the following relationships must always be incorrect?
A. Tolerances > process variability > control limits
B. Process variability > tolerances > control limits
C. Tolerances > control limits > process variability
D. Process variability > control limits > tolerances
E. Process variability <Tolerances<control limits
A. Tolerances > process variability > control limits
B. Process variability > tolerances > control limits
C. Tolerances > control limits > process variability
D. Process variability > control limits > tolerances
E. Process variability <Tolerances<control limits
66. Which
of the following is not a step in the quality control process?
A. define what is to be controlled
B. compare measurements to a standard
C. eliminate each of the defects as they are identified
D. take corrective action if necessary
E. evaluate corrective action
A. define what is to be controlled
B. compare measurements to a standard
C. eliminate each of the defects as they are identified
D. take corrective action if necessary
E. evaluate corrective action
67. The
probability of concluding that assignable variation exists when only random
variation is present is:
(I) the probability of a Type I error
(II) known as the alpha risk
(III) highly unlikely
(IV) the sum of probabilities in the two tails of the normal distribution
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. I, II, and IV
E. I, III, and IV
(I) the probability of a Type I error
(II) known as the alpha risk
(III) highly unlikely
(IV) the sum of probabilities in the two tails of the normal distribution
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. I, II, and IV
E. I, III, and IV
68. _______
variation is a variation whose cause can be identified.
A. Assignable
B. Controllable
C. Random
D. Statistical
E. Theoretical
A. Assignable
B. Controllable
C. Random
D. Statistical
E. Theoretical
69. A
plot below the lower control limit on the range chart:
(I) should be ignored since lower variation is desirable
(II) may be an indication that process variation has decreased
(III) should be investigated for assignable cause
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II only
E. I, II, and III
(I) should be ignored since lower variation is desirable
(II) may be an indication that process variation has decreased
(III) should be investigated for assignable cause
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II only
E. I, II, and III
70. A
shift in the process mean for a measured characteristic would most likely be
detected by a:
A. p-chart
B. x-bar chart
C. c-chart
D. R-chart
E. s-chart
A. p-chart
B. x-bar chart
C. c-chart
D. R-chart
E. s-chart
71. The
range chart (R-chart) is most likely to detect a change in:
A. proportion
B. mean
C. number defective
D. variability
E. sample size
A. proportion
B. mean
C. number defective
D. variability
E. sample size
72. The
optimum level of inspection is where the:
A. cost of inspection is minimum
B. cost of passing defectives is minimum
C. total cost of inspection and defectives is maximum
D. total cost of inspection and defectives is minimum
E. difference between inspection and defectives costs is minimum
A. cost of inspection is minimum
B. cost of passing defectives is minimum
C. total cost of inspection and defectives is maximum
D. total cost of inspection and defectives is minimum
E. difference between inspection and defectives costs is minimum
73. The
purpose of control charts is to:
A. estimate the proportion of output that is acceptable
B. weed out defective items
C. determine if the output is within tolerances/specifications
D. distinguish between random variation and assignable variation in the process
E. provide meaningful work for quality inspectors
A. estimate the proportion of output that is acceptable
B. weed out defective items
C. determine if the output is within tolerances/specifications
D. distinguish between random variation and assignable variation in the process
E. provide meaningful work for quality inspectors
74. The
process capability index (Cpk) may mislead if:
(I) the process is not stable.
(II) the process output is not normally distributed.
(III) the process is not centered.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II only
E. I, II and III
(I) the process is not stable.
(II) the process output is not normally distributed.
(III) the process is not centered.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II only
E. I, II and III
75. A
time-ordered plot of sample statistics is called a(n) ______ chart.
A. Statistical
B. Inspection
C. Control
D. SIMO
E. Limit
A. Statistical
B. Inspection
C. Control
D. SIMO
E. Limit
86. The number of runs up and down for
the data above is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. none of these
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. none of these
87. The
number of runs with respect to the sample median is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. none of these
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. none of these
The
following data occurs chronologically from left to right:
88. The
number of runs with respect to the sample median is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. none of these
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. none of these
89. The
number of runs up and down is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. none of these
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. none of these
A design
engineer wants to construct a sample mean chart for controlling the service
life of a halogen headlamp his company produces. He knows from numerous
previous samples that this service life is normally distributed with a mean of
500 hours and a standard deviation of 20 hours. On three recent production
batches, he tested service life on random samples of four headlamps, with these
results:
90. What
is the sample mean service life for sample 2?
A. 460 hours
B. 495 hours
C. 500 hours
D. 515 hours
E. 525 hours
A. 460 hours
B. 495 hours
C. 500 hours
D. 515 hours
E. 525 hours
91. What
is the mean of the sampling distribution of sample means when service life is
in control?
A. 250 hours
B. 470 hours
C. 495 hours
D. 500 hours
E. 515 hours
A. 250 hours
B. 470 hours
C. 495 hours
D. 500 hours
E. 515 hours
92. What
is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of sample means for
whenever service life is in control?
A. 5 hours
B. 6.67 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 11.55 hours
E. 20 hours
A. 5 hours
B. 6.67 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 11.55 hours
E. 20 hours
93. If he
uses upper and lower control limits of 520 and 480 hours, what is his risk
(alpha) of concluding service life is out of control when it is actually under
control (Type I error)?
A. 0.0026
B. 0.0456
C. 0.3174
D. 0.6826
E. 0.9544
A. 0.0026
B. 0.0456
C. 0.3174
D. 0.6826
E. 0.9544
94. If he
uses upper and lower control limits of 520 and 480 hours, on what sample(s) (if
any) does service life appear to be out of control?
A. sample 1
B. sample 2
C. sample 3
D. both samples 2 and 3
E. all samples are in control
A. sample 1
B. sample 2
C. sample 3
D. both samples 2 and 3
E. all samples are in control
A
Quality Analyst wants to construct a sample mean chart for controlling a
packaging process. He knows from past experience that whenever this process is
under control, package weight is normally distributed with a mean of twenty
ounces and a standard deviation of two ounces. Each day last week, he randomly
selected four packages and weighed each:
95. What
is the sample mean package weight for Thursday?
A. 19 ounces
B. 20 ounces
C. 20.6 ounces
D. 21 ounces
E. 23 ounces
A. 19 ounces
B. 20 ounces
C. 20.6 ounces
D. 21 ounces
E. 23 ounces
96. What
is the mean of the sampling distribution of sample means when this process is
under control?
A. 18 ounces
B. 19 ounces
C. 20 ounces
D. 21 ounces
E. 22 ounces
A. 18 ounces
B. 19 ounces
C. 20 ounces
D. 21 ounces
E. 22 ounces
97. What
is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of sample means for
whenever this process is under control?
A. 0.1 ounces
B. 0.4 ounces
C. 0.5 ounces
D. 1 ounce
E. 2 ounces
A. 0.1 ounces
B. 0.4 ounces
C. 0.5 ounces
D. 1 ounce
E. 2 ounces
98. If he
uses upper and lower control limits of 22 and 18 ounces, what is his risk
(alpha) of concluding this process is out of control when it is actually in
control (Type I error)?
A. 0.0026
B. 0.0456
C. 0.3174
D. 0.6826
E. 0.9544
A. 0.0026
B. 0.0456
C. 0.3174
D. 0.6826
E. 0.9544
99. If he
uses upper and lower control limits of 22 and 18 ounces, on what day(s), if
any, does this process appear to be out of control?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Monday and Tuesday
D. Monday, Tuesday, and Thursday
E. none
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Monday and Tuesday
D. Monday, Tuesday, and Thursday
E. none
A
Quality Analyst wants to construct a control chart for determining whether
three machines, all producing the same product, are under control with regard
to a particular quality variable. Accordingly, he sampled four units of output
from each machine, with the following results:
100. What
is the sample mean for machine #1?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 21
E. 23
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 21
E. 23
101. What
is the estimate of the process mean for whenever it is under control?
A. 16
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
E. 23
A. 16
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
E. 23
102. What
is the estimate of the sample average range based upon this limited
sample?
A. 13.0
B. 4.33
C. 5.4
D. 4.2
E. 2.0
A. 13.0
B. 4.33
C. 5.4
D. 4.2
E. 2.0
103. What
are the x-bar chart three sigma upper and lower control limits?
A. 22 and 18
B. 23.29 and 16.71
C. 23.5 and 16.5
D. 23.16 and 16.84
E. 24 and 16
A. 22 and 18
B. 23.29 and 16.71
C. 23.5 and 16.5
D. 23.16 and 16.84
E. 24 and 16
104. For
upper and lower control limits of 23.29 and 16.71, which machine(s), if any,
appear(s) to have an out-of-control process mean?
A. machine #1
B. machine #2
C. machine #3
D. all of the machines
E. none of the machines
A. machine #1
B. machine #2
C. machine #3
D. all of the machines
E. none of the machines
The
Chair of the Operations Management Department at Quality University wants to
construct a p-chart for determining whether the four faculty teaching the basic
P/OM course are under control with regard to the number of students who fail
the course. Accordingly, he sampled 100 final grades from last year for each
instructor, with the following results:
105. What
is the sample proportion of failures (p) for Prof. D?
A. 0
B. .04
C. .11
D. .13
E. .16
A. 0
B. .04
C. .11
D. .13
E. .16
106. What
is the estimate of the mean proportion of failures for these instructors?
A. .10
B. .11
C. .13
D. .16
E. .40
A. .10
B. .11
C. .13
D. .16
E. .40
107. What
is the estimate of the standard deviation of the sampling distribution for an
instructor's sample proportion of failures?
A. .0075
B. .03
C. .075
D. .3
E. .75
A. .0075
B. .03
C. .075
D. .3
E. .75
108. What
are the .95 (5% risk of Type I error) upper and lower control limits for the
p-chart?
A. .95 and .05
B. .13 and .07
C. .1588 and .0412
D. .16 and .04
E. .1774 and .0226
A. .95 and .05
B. .13 and .07
C. .1588 and .0412
D. .16 and .04
E. .1774 and .0226
109. Using
.95 control limits, (5% risk of Type I error), which instructor(s), if any,
should he conclude is (are) out of control?
A. none
B. Prof. B
C. Prof. D
D. both Prof. B and Prof. D
E. all
A. none
B. Prof. B
C. Prof. D
D. both Prof. B and Prof. D
E. all
A
Quality Analyst wants to construct a control chart for determining whether four
machines, all producing the same product, are under control with regard to a
particular quality attribute. Accordingly, she inspected 1,000 units of output
from each machine in random samples, with the following results:
110. What
is the sample proportion of defectives for machine #1?
A. .023
B. .02
C. .0115
D. .0058
E. .005
A. .023
B. .02
C. .0115
D. .0058
E. .005
111. What
is the estimate of the process proportion of defectives for whenever it is
under control?
A. .08
B. .06
C. .04
D. .02
E. .01
A. .08
B. .06
C. .04
D. .02
E. .01
112. What
is the estimate of the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of
sample proportions for whenever this process is under control?
A. .016
B. .00016
C. .04
D. .0044
E. .00002
A. .016
B. .00016
C. .04
D. .0044
E. .00002
113. What
are the control chart upper and lower control limits for an alpha risk of
.05?
A. .0272 and .0128
B. .0287 and .0113
C. .029 and .013
D. .0303 and .0097
E. .0332 and .0068
A. .0272 and .0128
B. .0287 and .0113
C. .029 and .013
D. .0303 and .0097
E. .0332 and .0068
114. For
upper and lower control limits of .026 and .014, which machine(s), if any,
appear(s) to be out-of-control for process proportion of defectives?
A. machine #3
B. machine #4
C. machines #3 and #4
D. machines #2 and #3
E. none of the machines
A. machine #3
B. machine #4
C. machines #3 and #4
D. machines #2 and #3
E. none of the machines
133. Studies
on a bottle-filling machine indicates it fills bottles to a mean of 16 ounces
with a standard deviation of 0.10 ounces. What is the process specification,
assuming the Cpk index of 1?
A. 0.10 ounces
B. 0.20 ounces
C. 0.30 ounces
D. 16.0 ounces plus or minus 0.30 ounces
E. none of the above
A. 0.10 ounces
B. 0.20 ounces
C. 0.30 ounces
D. 16.0 ounces plus or minus 0.30 ounces
E. none of the above
134. Studies
on a machine that molds plastic water pipe indicate that when it is injecting
1-inch diameter pipe, the process standard deviation is 0.05 inches. The
one-inch pipe has a specification of 1-inch plus or minus 0.10 inch. What is
the process capability index (Cpk) if the long-run process mean is 1
inch?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.00
D. 2.00
E. none of the above
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.00
D. 2.00
E. none of the above
135. The
specification limit for a product is 8 cm and 10 cm. A process that produces
the product has a mean of 9.5 cm and a standard deviation of 0.2 cm. What is
the process capability, Cpk?
A. 3.33
B. 1.67
C. 0.83
D. 2.50
E. none of the above
A. 3.33
B. 1.67
C. 0.83
D. 2.50
E. none of the above
136. The
specifications for a product are 6 mm ± 0.1 mm. The
process is known to operate at a mean of 6.05 with a standard deviation of 0.01
mm. What is the Cpk for this process?
A. 3.33
B. 1.67
C. 5.00
D. 2.50
E. none of the above
A. 3.33
B. 1.67
C. 5.00
D. 2.50
E. none of the above
137. Organizations
should work to improve process capability so that quality control efforts can
become more ________.
A. effective
B. efficient
C. necessary
D. unnecessary
E. widespread
A. effective
B. efficient
C. necessary
D. unnecessary
E. widespread
138. A
process results in a few defects occurring in each unit of output. Long-run,
these defects should be monitored with ___________.
A. p-charts
B. c-charts
C. x-bar charts
D. r-charts
E. o-charts
A. p-charts
B. c-charts
C. x-bar charts
D. r-charts
E. o-charts
139. When
a process is in control, it results in there being, on average, 16 defects per
unit of output. C-chart limits of 8 and 24 would lead to a _______ chance of a
Type I error.
A. 67%
B. 92%
C. 33%
D. .03%
E. 5%
A. 67%
B. 92%
C. 33%
D. .03%
E. 5%
140. When
a process is in control, it results in there being, on average, 16 defects per
unit of output. C-chart limits of 4 and 28 would lead to a _______ chance of a
Type I error.
A. 67%
B. 92%
C. 33%
D. 0.3%
E. 5%
A. 67%
B. 92%
C. 33%
D. 0.3%
E. 5%
141. The
basis for a statistical process control chart is a(the) __________.
A. process capability
B. sampling distribution
C. control limit
D. sample range
E. sample mean
A. process capability
B. sampling distribution
C. control limit
D. sample range
E. sample mean
1. MRP works best if the inventory items have dependent
demand.
2. Low level coding represents items less than $18 per unit.
3. Independent demand tends to be more 'lumpy' than dependent demand meaning that we need large quantities followed by periods of no demand.
4. Lumpy demand for components results primarily from the periodic scheduling of batch production.
5. MRP is used within most MRP II and ERP systems.
6. The master production schedule states which end items are to be produced, in addition to when and how many.
7. Net requirements equal gross requirements minus safety stock.
8. The master schedule needs to be for a period long enough to cover the stacked or cumulative lead time necessary to produce the end items.
9. Initially, a master production schedule - the output from MRP - may not represent a feasible schedule.
10. MRP, considering inventory position, bills of material, open purchase orders and lead times guarantees a feasible production plan if the inputs to MRP are accurate.
11. The bill of materials indicates how much material will be needed to produce the quantities on a given master production schedule.
12. A bill of materials contains a listing of all the assemblies, parts, and materials needed to produce one unit of an end item.
13. The bill of materials contains information on lead times and current inventory position on every component required to produce the end item.
14. The inventory records contain information on the status of each item by time period.
15. An assembly-time chart indicates gross and net requirements taking into account the current available inventory.
16. MRP II did not replace or improve the basic MRP.
17. The gross requirements at one level of an MRP plan determine the gross requirements at the next lower level continuing on down to the lowest levels shown on the bill of material.
18. The gross requirements value for any given component is equal to the net requirements of that component's immediate parent multiplied by the quantity per parent.
19. The term pegging refers to identifying the parent items that have generated a given set of material requirements for a part or subassembly.
20. A net-change MRP system is one that is updated periodically but not less frequently than once a week.
21. One reason that accurate bills of material are important is that errors at one level become magnified at lower levels because of the multiplication process used by MRP.
22. A regenerative MRP system is one that is updated continuously - every time there is a schedule change.
23. One of the primary output reports of MRP concerns changes to planned orders.
24. Safety time is sometimes used in MRP rather than safety stock quantities.
25. Lot-for-lot ordering in MRP provides coverage for some predetermined number of periods using forecasted demand to extend beyond the orders already received for those periods.
26. MRP output reports are divided into two main groups - daily and weekly.
27. In MRP, EOQ models tend to be less useful for materials at the lowest levels than for upper level assemblies of the bill of materials since higher-level assemblies have larger dollar investments.
28. Load reports show capacity requirements for departments or work centers which may be more or less than the capacity available in that work center.
29. ERP began in manufacturing organizations but has spread into service organizations.
30. MRP II is simply an improved version of MRP that processes faster and can plan for a larger number of end items.
31. Lot-for-lot ordering in MRP eliminates the holding costs for parts that are carried over to other periods.
32. Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is an important feature in MRP+.
33. Project Management approaches can help in a conversion to an ERP system.
34. As long as a forecast is plus or minus 10%, MRP works well.
35. ERP represents an expanded effort to integrate standardized record-keeping that shares information among different areas of an organization.
36. Back flushing takes place after the production has been completed.
37. Before a schedule receipt can take place, and order must be placed with a vendor.
38. MRP really doesn't apply to services since raw material isn't required.
39. ERP implementation requires support and a direct mandate from the CEO because it impacts so many different functional areas.
40. ERP automates the tasks involved in performing a business process, such as order fulfillment and financial reporting.
41. Which of the following most closely describes dependent demand?
A. demand generated by suppliers
B. estimates of demand using regression analysis of independent variables
C. derived demand
D. demands placed on suppliers by their customers
E. net material requirements
3. Independent demand tends to be more 'lumpy' than dependent demand meaning that we need large quantities followed by periods of no demand.
4. Lumpy demand for components results primarily from the periodic scheduling of batch production.
5. MRP is used within most MRP II and ERP systems.
6. The master production schedule states which end items are to be produced, in addition to when and how many.
7. Net requirements equal gross requirements minus safety stock.
8. The master schedule needs to be for a period long enough to cover the stacked or cumulative lead time necessary to produce the end items.
9. Initially, a master production schedule - the output from MRP - may not represent a feasible schedule.
10. MRP, considering inventory position, bills of material, open purchase orders and lead times guarantees a feasible production plan if the inputs to MRP are accurate.
11. The bill of materials indicates how much material will be needed to produce the quantities on a given master production schedule.
12. A bill of materials contains a listing of all the assemblies, parts, and materials needed to produce one unit of an end item.
13. The bill of materials contains information on lead times and current inventory position on every component required to produce the end item.
14. The inventory records contain information on the status of each item by time period.
15. An assembly-time chart indicates gross and net requirements taking into account the current available inventory.
16. MRP II did not replace or improve the basic MRP.
17. The gross requirements at one level of an MRP plan determine the gross requirements at the next lower level continuing on down to the lowest levels shown on the bill of material.
18. The gross requirements value for any given component is equal to the net requirements of that component's immediate parent multiplied by the quantity per parent.
19. The term pegging refers to identifying the parent items that have generated a given set of material requirements for a part or subassembly.
20. A net-change MRP system is one that is updated periodically but not less frequently than once a week.
21. One reason that accurate bills of material are important is that errors at one level become magnified at lower levels because of the multiplication process used by MRP.
22. A regenerative MRP system is one that is updated continuously - every time there is a schedule change.
23. One of the primary output reports of MRP concerns changes to planned orders.
24. Safety time is sometimes used in MRP rather than safety stock quantities.
25. Lot-for-lot ordering in MRP provides coverage for some predetermined number of periods using forecasted demand to extend beyond the orders already received for those periods.
26. MRP output reports are divided into two main groups - daily and weekly.
27. In MRP, EOQ models tend to be less useful for materials at the lowest levels than for upper level assemblies of the bill of materials since higher-level assemblies have larger dollar investments.
28. Load reports show capacity requirements for departments or work centers which may be more or less than the capacity available in that work center.
29. ERP began in manufacturing organizations but has spread into service organizations.
30. MRP II is simply an improved version of MRP that processes faster and can plan for a larger number of end items.
31. Lot-for-lot ordering in MRP eliminates the holding costs for parts that are carried over to other periods.
32. Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is an important feature in MRP+.
33. Project Management approaches can help in a conversion to an ERP system.
34. As long as a forecast is plus or minus 10%, MRP works well.
35. ERP represents an expanded effort to integrate standardized record-keeping that shares information among different areas of an organization.
36. Back flushing takes place after the production has been completed.
37. Before a schedule receipt can take place, and order must be placed with a vendor.
38. MRP really doesn't apply to services since raw material isn't required.
39. ERP implementation requires support and a direct mandate from the CEO because it impacts so many different functional areas.
40. ERP automates the tasks involved in performing a business process, such as order fulfillment and financial reporting.
41. Which of the following most closely describes dependent demand?
A. demand generated by suppliers
B. estimates of demand using regression analysis of independent variables
C. derived demand
D. demands placed on suppliers by their customers
E. net material requirements
42. ERP implementation probably won't require:
A. cross functional teams
B. just a few weeks to install
C. intensive training
D. high funding for both initial cost and maintenance
E. frequent upgrades after installation
A. cross functional teams
B. just a few weeks to install
C. intensive training
D. high funding for both initial cost and maintenance
E. frequent upgrades after installation
43. A computer-based information system designed to handle
ordering and scheduling of dependent-demand inventories is:
A. computer aided manufacturing (CAM)
B. computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)
C. economic order quantity (EOQ)
D. material requirements planning (MRP)
E. economic run size (ERS)
A. computer aided manufacturing (CAM)
B. computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)
C. economic order quantity (EOQ)
D. material requirements planning (MRP)
E. economic run size (ERS)
44. The development and application of MRP depended upon two
developments: (1) the recognition of the difference between independent and
dependent demand, and (2):
A. computers
B. development of the EOQ model
C. inventory control systems
D. blanket purchase orders
E. the internet
A. computers
B. development of the EOQ model
C. inventory control systems
D. blanket purchase orders
E. the internet
45. The output of MRP is:
A. gross requirements
B. net requirements
C. a schedule of requirements for all parts and end items
D. inventory reorder points
E. economic order quantities and reorder points
A. gross requirements
B. net requirements
C. a schedule of requirements for all parts and end items
D. inventory reorder points
E. economic order quantities and reorder points
46. Which one of the following is not an input in an MRP
system?
A. planned-order schedules
B. bill of materials
C. master production schedule
D. inventory records
E. All are inputs.
A. planned-order schedules
B. bill of materials
C. master production schedule
D. inventory records
E. All are inputs.
47. The MRP input stating which end items are to be produced,
when they are needed, and what quantities are needed, is the:
A. master schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
A. master schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
48. In an MRP master schedule, the planning horizon is often
separated into a series of times periods called:
A. pegging
B. lead times
C. stacked lead times
D. time buckets
E. firm, fixed and frozen
A. pegging
B. lead times
C. stacked lead times
D. time buckets
E. firm, fixed and frozen
49. The MRP input listing the assemblies, subassemblies, parts,
and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product is the:
A. master production schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
A. master production schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
50. A visual depiction of the subassemblies and components that
are needed to produce and/or assemble a product is called a(n):
A. assembly time chart
B. product structure tree
C. MRP II
D. pegging
E. Gantt chart
A. assembly time chart
B. product structure tree
C. MRP II
D. pegging
E. Gantt chart
51. The MRP input storing information on the status of each
item by time period (e.g., scheduled receipts, lead time, lot size) is
the:
A. master production schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
A. master production schedule
B. bill-of-materials
C. inventory-records
D. assembly-time chart
E. net-requirements chart
52. Which one of the following most closely describes net
material requirements?
A. gross requirements - amount on-hand - scheduled receipts
B. gross requirements - planned receipts
C. gross requirements - order releases + amount on-hand
D. gross requirements - planned order releases
E. gross requirements - amount on-hand + planned order releases
A. gross requirements - amount on-hand - scheduled receipts
B. gross requirements - planned receipts
C. gross requirements - order releases + amount on-hand
D. gross requirements - planned order releases
E. gross requirements - amount on-hand + planned order releases
53. In MRP, "scheduled receipts" are:
A. identical to "planned-order receipts"
B. identical to "planned-order releases"
C. open orders (that is, ordered before the first time bucket, but not delivered yet)
D. "net requirements"
E. available to promise inventory
A. identical to "planned-order receipts"
B. identical to "planned-order releases"
C. open orders (that is, ordered before the first time bucket, but not delivered yet)
D. "net requirements"
E. available to promise inventory
54. In MRP, under lot-for-lot ordering, "planned-order
receipts" are:
A. identical to "scheduled receipts"
B. identical to "planned-order releases"
C. open orders (that is, ordered before the first time bucket, but not delivered yet)
D. "gross requirements"
E. available to promise inventory
A. identical to "scheduled receipts"
B. identical to "planned-order releases"
C. open orders (that is, ordered before the first time bucket, but not delivered yet)
D. "gross requirements"
E. available to promise inventory
55. Under lot-for-lot, order sizes for component parts are
essentially determined directly from which one of the following?
A. gross requirements
B. net requirements
C. economic order quantity
D. gross requirements - net requirements
E. net requirements - amount on-hand
A. gross requirements
B. net requirements
C. economic order quantity
D. gross requirements - net requirements
E. net requirements - amount on-hand
56. In MRP, the gross requirements of a given component part
are calculated from:
A. net requirements + amount on-hand.
B. gross requirements of the immediate parent.
C. planned orders of the end item.
D. net requirements of end item.
E. planned orders of the immediate parent.
A. net requirements + amount on-hand.
B. gross requirements of the immediate parent.
C. planned orders of the end item.
D. net requirements of end item.
E. planned orders of the immediate parent.
57. The identification of parent items is called:
A. Paternity
B. Pegging
C. Requirement I.D.
D. Relationship tracking
E. Master Scheduling
A. Paternity
B. Pegging
C. Requirement I.D.
D. Relationship tracking
E. Master Scheduling
58. Periodic updating of an MRP system to account for all
changes which have occurred within a given time interval is called:
A. pegging
B. planned order release
C. net change
D. regenerative
E. exception report
A. pegging
B. planned order release
C. net change
D. regenerative
E. exception report
59. An MRP system whose records are updated continuously is
referred to as a(n):
A. regenerative system
B. batch-type system
C. Plossl-Wright system
D. net-change system
E. gross-change system
A. regenerative system
B. batch-type system
C. Plossl-Wright system
D. net-change system
E. gross-change system
60. Which is true of a net-change system?
A. It is a batch-type system which is updated periodically.
B. It is usually run at the beginning of each month.
C. The basic production plan is modified to reflect changes as they occur.
D. It is used to authorize the execution of planned orders.
E. It indicates the amount and timing of future changes.
A. It is a batch-type system which is updated periodically.
B. It is usually run at the beginning of each month.
C. The basic production plan is modified to reflect changes as they occur.
D. It is used to authorize the execution of planned orders.
E. It indicates the amount and timing of future changes.
61. Which one of the following most closely describes the MRP
approach that is used for components or subassemblies to compensate for
variations in lead time?
A. pegging
B. safety stock
C. increased order sizes
D. safety time
E. low-level coding
A. pegging
B. safety stock
C. increased order sizes
D. safety time
E. low-level coding
62. Which of the following lot sizing methods does not attempt
to balance ordering (or setup) and holding costs?
A. economic order quantity
B. economic run size
C. lot-for-lot
D. part-period
E. all of the above
A. economic order quantity
B. economic run size
C. lot-for-lot
D. part-period
E. all of the above
63. When MRP II systems include feedback, they are known
as:
A. MRPIII
B. Enterprise resource planning
C. Circular MRP
D. Feasible MRP
E. Closed Loop MRP
A. MRPIII
B. Enterprise resource planning
C. Circular MRP
D. Feasible MRP
E. Closed Loop MRP
64. The multiplication process used by MRP to determine lower
level requirements is called:
A. time-phasing
B. pegging
C. netting
D. projecting
E. exploding
A. time-phasing
B. pegging
C. netting
D. projecting
E. exploding
65. _______ is choosing how many to order or make.
A. Quantity determination
B. Package sizing
C. Lot sizing
D. Grouping
E. Aggregation
A. Quantity determination
B. Package sizing
C. Lot sizing
D. Grouping
E. Aggregation
66. Which of the following is not usually necessary in order to
have an effective MRP system?
A. a computer and software
B. an accurate bill of materials
C. lot-for-lot ordering
D. an up-to-date master schedule
E. integrity of file data
A. a computer and software
B. an accurate bill of materials
C. lot-for-lot ordering
D. an up-to-date master schedule
E. integrity of file data
67. The _________ of ERP makes it valuable as a strategic
planning tool.
A. Internet base
B. Rapid Batch capability
C. Employee focus
D. Real-time aspect
E. Database structure
A. Internet base
B. Rapid Batch capability
C. Employee focus
D. Real-time aspect
E. Database structure
68. A recent effort to expand the scope of production resource
planning by involving other functional areas in the planning process has
been:
A. material requirements planning
B. capacity requirements planning
C. manufacturing resources planning
D. Just-In-Time planning
E. multifunctional relationships planning
A. material requirements planning
B. capacity requirements planning
C. manufacturing resources planning
D. Just-In-Time planning
E. multifunctional relationships planning
69. Which statement concerning MRP II is false?
A. It is basically a computerized system.
B. It can handle complex planning and scheduling quickly.
C. It involves other functional areas in the production planning process.
D. It involves capacity planning.
E. It produces a production plan which includes all resources required.
A. It is basically a computerized system.
B. It can handle complex planning and scheduling quickly.
C. It involves other functional areas in the production planning process.
D. It involves capacity planning.
E. It produces a production plan which includes all resources required.
70. Which of these items would be most likely to have dependent
demand?
A. Xbox batteries
B. toy trains
C. flowers
D. chocolate chip cookies
E. wrist watches
A. Xbox batteries
B. toy trains
C. flowers
D. chocolate chip cookies
E. wrist watches
71. Which of these products would be most likely to have
dependent demand?
A. refrigerators
B. automobile engines
C. televisions
D. brownies
E. automobiles
A. refrigerators
B. automobile engines
C. televisions
D. brownies
E. automobiles
Refer to this product-tree:
78. If 17
Ps are needed, and no on-hand inventory exists for any items, how many Cs will
be needed?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 136
D. 204
E. 272
A. 8
B. 16
C. 136
D. 204
E. 272
79. If 17 Ps are needed, and on-hand inventory consists of 10
As, 15 Bs, 20 Cs, 12 Ms, and 5 Ns, how many Cs are needed?
A. 48
B. 144
C. 192
D. 212
E. 272
A. 48
B. 144
C. 192
D. 212
E. 272
80. If 40 Ps are needed, and on-hand inventory consists of 15
Ps and 10 each of all other components and subassemblies, how many Cs are
needed?
A. 340
B. 350
C. 380
D. 400
E. 590
A. 340
B. 350
C. 380
D. 400
E. 590
81. What is the net requirement for Dark Chocolate Truffles
to fill this order?
A. 100
B. 140
C. 150
D. 180
E. 200
A. 100
B. 140
C. 150
D. 180
E. 200
82. When should an order for Carved Chocolate Eggs be
released?
A. at the start of week 2
B. at the start of week 3
C. at the start of week 4
D. at the start of week 5
E. at the start of week 6
A. at the start of week 2
B. at the start of week 3
C. at the start of week 4
D. at the start of week 5
E. at the start of week 6
83. How many Dark Chocolate Eggs should be ordered?
A. 310
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
E. 600
A. 310
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
E. 600
84. If the firm is using a fixed period lot size of two
periods, what is the order size for the first order?
A. 120
B. 200
C. 280
D. 160
E. 150
A. 120
B. 200
C. 280
D. 160
E. 150
85. Which of the following represents an attempt to balance the
benefits of stability against the benefits of responding to new
information?
A. safety stock
B. safety time
C. bills of material
D. time fences
E. fixed-period lot sizing
A. safety stock
B. safety time
C. bills of material
D. time fences
E. fixed-period lot sizing
86. Comparing known and expected capacity requirements with
projected capacity availability is the job of _______.
A. planned releases
B. load reports
C. lot sizing
D. work loading
E. time fencing
A. planned releases
B. load reports
C. lot sizing
D. work loading
E. time fencing
87. ERP's primary value comes from applications ________.
A. deployment
B. development
C. interfaces
D. integration
E. networking
A. deployment
B. development
C. interfaces
D. integration
E. networking
88. Net requirements for component J are as follows: 60 units
in week 2, 40 units in week 3, and 60 units in week 5. If a fixed-period,
two-period lot-sizing method is used, what will be the quantity of the first
planned receipt?
A. 60 units
B. 120 units
C. 180 units
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of the above
A. 60 units
B. 120 units
C. 180 units
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of the above
89. Net requirements for component J are as follows: 60 units
in week 2, 40 units in week 3, and 60 units in week 5. If a fixed-period,
three-period lot-sizing method is used, what will be the quantity of the first
planned receipt?
A. 60
B. 100
C. 160
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of the above
A. 60
B. 100
C. 160
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of the above
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