Sunday, March 26, 2017

Liberty University PSYC 101 quiz 9 solutions answers right

Liberty University PSYC 101 quiz 9 solutions answers right
How many versions: 6 different versions

Question 1 Eight­month­old Finnegan is playful and responds positively to changes. He generally has a happy mood, and he quickly developed a regular sleeping and feeding schedule. Based on this description from the New York Longitudinal Study, Finnegan would be categorized as a(n) ______ child.
Question 2 Elvin is 75 years old. He is rather sad because he regrets the wasted opportunities in life and feels he has made a lot of mistakes. From Erikson’s perspective, this reflects a sense of
Question 3 Amy teaches four­year­old preschool. After taking her college developmental psychology class, Amy determines that the majority of her students will be dealing with which psychosocial crisis?
Question 4 Lawrence Kohlberg was interested in which aspect of development?
Question 5 Regarding physical changes in adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 6 Sharleen believes she is unlike anyone else and is invulnerable. When she is having a crisis and her parents try to talk to her, Sharleen says, “You can’t possibly understand what I’m going through!” This reflects which aspect of adolescent cognitive development?
Question 7 Kohlberg’s model of moral development has been criticized as culturally biased because
Question 8 Kohlberg studied moral development by
Question 9 A medical doctor believes that terminally ill people have the right to control the time and circumstances of their death. Despite the fact that assisting a suicide is illegal, the doctor provides the means for many terminally ill people to end their lives. The doctor’s actions best fit which level of moral reasoning?
Question 10 Maternal smoking is associated with increased risk in the offspring with all of the following EXCEPT
Question 11 Andrew took the family car without permission. He seriously damaged it while joyriding. Afterwards, his parents bought him a car of his own. This is an example of which parenting style?
Question 12 The Strange Situation was developed to study
Question 13 In the film “Fly Away Home,” a group of abandoned goslings develop a strong bond with a young girl. Since their mother is not there, the girl teaches the geese to fly using an ultralite airplane. This film is a good example of which concept from development psychology?
Question 14 The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from
Question 15 Eleanor (24 months old) is beginning to desire more independence. She does not like her parents to feed her. Her parents are willing to let her feed herself, even though there is often a big mess. Based on this description, Eleanor is probably going to leave this stage of development with a feeling of
Question 16 Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?
Question 17 An influential theory of death and dying was developed by
Question 18 Paula has recently dropped out of high school. She is not sure where she is headed in life, but school does not seem to be a part of it. She has started drinking and hanging around whoever has some alcohol. It sounds like Paula is in a state of
Question 19 Psychologists use the term _____ to describe a characteristic style of behavior or disposition.
Question 20 Generalizing from the Greek word on which it is based, “teras,” which of the following words best describes the nature of a teratogen?

Question 1 Maria suffers from a bone disease characterized by loss of bone density in which the bones become porous, brittle, and more prone to fracture. Which disease is she likely to have?
Question 2 Nine­year­old Dakoda realizes that the quantity of water in a glass remains the same, even when the water is poured into a different shaped glass and appears to look like more or less. In Piaget’s terms, Dakoda has developed
Question 3 The biological unfolding of an organism according to its underlying genetic code is called
Question 4 In descriptions of temperament, another term for “slow­to­warm­up” is
Question 5 The ability to think abstractly and flexibly in solving problems is referred to as
Question 6 What type of infant temperament is generally associated with better adjustment in adulthood?
Question 7 According to Erikson, middle adulthood is to ______ as early adulthood is to _______.
Question 8 According to Erik Erikson, people who forge a strong sense of ego identity earlier in development are more likely to achieve what in early adulthood?
Question 9 Elvin is 75 years old. He is rather sad because he regrets the wasted opportunities in life and feels he has made a lot of mistakes. From Erikson’s perspective, this reflects a sense of
Question 10 Sixty­five­year­old Pablo is terminally ill with cancer. In terms of the stages of death and dying, how can his family and health care providers best help him?
Question 11 An unlearned response to a particular stimulus is a(n)
Question 12 If Derek is like the average American father, he is more likely than the mother to engage in which of the following activities with his infant daughter?
Question 13 Nolan was born with a hole in the tube surrounding his spinal cord. Which disorder does Nolan have?
Question 14 Six­month­old Charlotte fits the characteristics of a slow­to­warm­up temperament. Charlotte would be expected to exhibit all but which of the following?
Question 15 How are bonding and attachment different?
Question 16 Regarding infants’ learning abilities, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 17 Which reflex may have had the survival value in ancestral times of preventing infants from falling as their mothers carried them around all day?
Question 18 Forty­two­year­old Jon is experiencing a psychological challenge. He is grappling with the loss of his youth and feels “trapped,” perceiving a lack of future options. Based on this discrimination, what is Jon most likely experiencing?
Question 19 Which of the following best describes Erikson’s concept of stagnation?
Question 20 What general term does Piaget use for the process of changing to function more effectively in responding to environmental challenges?

Question 1 Other factors being equal, which child is at highest risk for negative outcomes in adolescence like poor school performance and low self­confidence?
Question 2 Regarding the normal declines in memory functioning that occur during midlife, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 3 All but which of the following people are using compensation to successfully respond to challenges of aging?
Question 4 Impaired hearing and vision, deformed teeth and bones, and liver damage may occur as a result of which teratogen?
Question 5 Shawn was born with fetal alcohol syndrome. Shawn’s symptoms may include all of the following EXCEPT
Question 6 Which is the first sign of puberty in a female?
Question 7 Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral development consists of which stages?
Question 8 The period of life beginning at puberty and ending with early adulthood is called
Question 9 Kohlberg studied moral development by
Question 10 What general term does Piaget use for the process of changing to function more effectively in responding to environmental challenges?
Question 11 Research on parenting styles suggests that the most effective parenting style is
Question 12 What is the correct sequencing of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
Question 13 Nurse Ross Millhouse works in an assisted living facility where he cares for residents over the age of 85. Assuming the residents are typical of people of their age, about what percentage of the residents under Millhouse’s care would be expected to suffer from Alzheimer’s disease?
Question 14 In her research on attachment, Ainsworth noted ______ different styles of attachment, and they are called ______.
Question 15 Which of the following structures acts as a sort of shock absorber for the developing embryo or fetus?
Question 16 Regarding infants’ learning abilities, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 17 Nine­year­old Dakoda realizes that the quantity of water in a glass remains the same, even when the water is poured into a different shaped glass and appears to look like more or less. In Piaget’s terms, Dakoda has developed
Question 18 Who studied the process of imprinting in geese and other species?
Question 19 Paula has recently dropped out of high school. She is not sure where she is headed in life, but school does not seem to be a part of it. She has started drinking and hanging around whoever has some alcohol. It sounds like Paula is in a state of
Question 20 An average child in the concrete operational stage of cognitive development can be expected to do all but which of the following?

Question 1 Instead of focusing on what she is no longer able to do, 80­year­old Pauline uses her time and money to make up for the shortcomings associated with aging, focusing on activities that are meaningful and important to her. Pauline demonstrates which characteristic associated with successful aging?
Question 2 At the beginning of the twentieth century, the average American girl began to show signs of puberty by around age
Question 3 Psychologist Jeffrey Arnett describes the transition from adolescence to adulthood with the term
Question 4 How are bonding and attachment different?
Question 5 Which of the following is the leading cause of dementia?
Question 6 Francesca, who is pregnant, has just felt the first movements of her developing offspring. Given what you know about prenatal development, at which month of pregnancy would you estimate Francesca to be?
Question 7 According to Vygotsky, the optimal relationship between adult and child is
Question 8 Regarding adolescent­parent relationships, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 9 The typical order of the stages in death and dying is
Question 10 The ability to solve abstract problems best describes someone at which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
Question 11 Sixty­five­year­old Pablo is terminally ill with cancer. In terms of the stages of death and dying, how can his family and health care providers best help him?
Question 12 Forty­two­year­old Jon is experiencing a psychological challenge. He is grappling with the loss of his youth and feels “trapped,” perceiving a lack of future options. Based on this discrimination, what is Jon most likely experiencing?
Question 13 Regarding physical changes in adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 14 In the Moro reflex, a newborn infant
Question 15 Regarding peer relationships in childhood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 16 Regarding physical and cognitive changes in late adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 17 Imaginary audience and personal fable are components of which aspect of adolescent thinking?
Question 18 The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from
Question 19 Lawrence Kohlberg was interested in which aspect of development?
Question 20 Research on parenting styles suggests that the most effective parenting style is

Question 1 Third­grade teacher Ben Stallworth can expect that the majority of his eight­ and nine ­ year­old students are in which stage of cognitive development?
Question 2 Teratogens that damage the arms and legs are most likely to have an effect during which weeks of pregnancy?
Question 3 Fifteen­year­old Erica is predicted to experience which psychosocial crisis?
Question 4 In her research on attachment, Ainsworth noted ______ different styles of attachment, and they are called ______.
Question 5 Which is the first sign of puberty in a female?
Question 6 Sharon is in the fourth week of her pregnancy. At which stage of prenatal development is her offspring?
Question 7 If Aretha is like the typical older adult, the psychological problem she is most likely to face is
Question 8 The age of viability refers to the
Question 9 Aimee was late coming home from school. Even though she had a reasonable excuse, her parents grounded her for a month and suspended her allowance. This sounds like which style of parenting?
Question 10 An influential theory of death and dying was developed by
Question 11 The ability to solve abstract problems best describes someone at which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
Question 12 Regarding the development of identity, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 13 Toma is almost five years old. As he was struggling to learn to tie his shoes, his parents became exasperated with him and bought him shoes with Velcro closures. When he had trouble learning to ride a two­wheeler with training wheels, his parents made him go back to a tricycle. According to Erikson’s theory, Toma may end up with a feeling of
Question 14 Regarding infant sensory abilities, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 15 Preserved intellectual ability in later life is associated with which factor(s)?
Question 16 As discussed in the text, in which culture do fathers engage in more physical play than mothers with their children?
Question 17 The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from
Question 18 Harriet is working on building a sense of independence and self­control. Generalizing from the theory of psychosocial development, Harriet is probably in which age group?
Question 19 Pedro just began lifting his chin and bringing objects to his mouth. What age would you guess Pedro to be?
Question 20 If 6­month­old Mikhail’s development is normal, he can be expected to do all but which of the following?

Question 1 The New York Longitudinal Study identified ______ types of temperament, and they are called ______.
Question 2 In Piaget’s terminology, changing existing schemas to incorporate new information is called
Question 3 Petra is able to imagine what would happen if parents were held legally responsible for the crimes of their children. She is capable of making an argument for or against this, regardless of her opinion. Petra is probably in which stage of cognitive development?
Question 4 A child who explains that putting his toys away is good because he will get a treat is at what level of moral development?
Question 5 Elvin is 75 years old. He is rather sad because he regrets the wasted opportunities in life and feels he has made a lot of mistakes. From Erikson’s perspective, this reflects a sense of
Question 6 How are bonding and attachment different?
Question 7 According to Erik Erikson, people who forge a strong sense of ego identity earlier in development are more likely to achieve what in early adulthood?
Question 8 All but which of the following have been put forth as criticisms of Piaget’s theory?
Question 9 Ten­-month-­old Kazik’s parents are very sensitive to her needs. Whenever she cries, someone tries to comfort her. Based on this description, she will probably effectively resolve which psychosocial crisis?
Question 10 In the film “Fly Away Home,” a group of abandoned goslings develop a strong bond with a young girl. Since their mother is not there, the girl teaches the geese to fly using an ultralite airplane. This film is a good example of which concept from development psychology?
Question 11 In her research on attachment, Ainsworth noted ______ different styles of attachment, and they are called ______.
Question 12 Fifteen-­year-­old Erica is predicted to experience which psychosocial crisis?
Question 13 Regarding physical and cognitive changes in late adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 14 Eight-­month-­old Finnegan is playful and responds positively to changes. He generally has a happy mood, and he quickly developed a regular sleeping and feeding schedule. Based on this description from the New York Longitudinal Study, Finnegan would be categorized as a(n) ______ child.
Question 15 In a cross­cultural study of moral reasoning in Americans and Indians reported in the text, which of the following was found?
Question 16 The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from
Question 17 An influential theory of death and dying was developed by
Question 18 Regarding adult crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence, which of the following statements is TRUE?
Question 19 According to the text, all but which of the following factors are associated with adolescent risk-­taking?
Question 20 Generalizing from attachment research, it appears that the majority of infants have which attachment style?

Question 1 Imaginary audience and personal fable are components of which aspect of adolescent thinking?
Question 2 Of the following characteristics Fiona experienced during puberty, which is a primary sex characteristic?
Question 3 In the film “Fly Away Home,” a group of abandoned goslings develop a strong bond with a young girl. Since their mother is not there, the girl teaches the geese to fly using an ultralite airplane. This film is a good example of which concept from development psychology?
Question 4 If Paige is like the average American girl, she will have her first period at about what age?
Question 5 The formation of a strong bond of a newborn animal to the first moving object seen after birth is called
Question 6 As discussed in the text, in which culture do fathers engage in more physical play than mothers with their children?
Question 7 Generalizing from attachment research, it appears that the majority of infants have which attachment style?
Question 8 Chris and Pat set limits for their children without being overcontrolling. Which style of parenting are they using?
Question 9 Regarding infant sensory abilities, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 10 Forty­two­year­old Jon is experiencing a psychological challenge. He is grappling with the loss of his youth and feels “trapped,” perceiving a lack of future options. Based on this discrimination, what is Jon most likely experiencing?
Question 11 Regarding the effects of teratogens on prenatal development, it appears that
Question 12 Which activity might allow Gwyneth to help her six­-month-­old granddaughter develop object permanence?
Question 13 If Maury’s son’s development is normal, Maury can expect that his son will develop depth perception by about what age?
Question 14 In a cross­cultural study of moral reasoning in Americans and Indians reported in the text, which of the following was found?
Question 15 Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?
Question 16 The stage at which people become physically capable of reproducing is called
Question 17 Regarding physical changes in adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 18 Six­month­old Charlotte fits the characteristics of a slow­to­warm­up temperament. Charlotte would be expected to exhibit all but which of the following?
Question 19 Regarding physical and cognitive changes in late adulthood, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Question 20 Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral development consists of which stages?

Sharon is in the fourth week of her pregnancy. At which stage of prenatal development is her offspring?
If 60-year-old Evelyn wants to increase her chances of preserving mental sharpness, which activity might she consider taking up?
Andrew took the family car without permission. He seriously damaged it while joyriding. Afterwards, his parents bought him a car of his own. This is an example of which parenting style?
In Piaget’s theory, the tendency to view the world only from one’s own perspective is
Harold says that hitting his sister is wrong because he will be punished if he does. Harold’s reasoning reflects which level of moral development?
Which of the following parental actions is associated with children having more behavior problems?
The typical order of the stages in death and dying is
Fifteen-year-old Erica is predicted to experience which psychosocial crisis?
Preserved intellectual ability in later life is associated with which factor(s)?
In Vygotsky’s terms, the range between a child’s present level of skills and knowledge and their potential level of skills and knowledge with appropriate guidance is called the child’s

1. As a developmental psychologist, Dr. Brighton is concerned with which of the following topics?
a) How can we measure IQ in an unbiased fashion?
b) When do people prefer to be in the company of others?
c) What is children's understanding of the concept of death at various ages?
d) Why do some people with bipolar disorder fail to respond to the medication that helps others?
e) Who is more likely to be an effective CEO, a male or a female?
2. According to the stages of development presented in the text, middle childhood is considered to be ages
a) two to four.
b) three to six.
c) four to eight.
d) five to ten.
e) six to twelve.
3. The psychologist who maintained that nurture, not nurture, determined behavior, and that he could mold infants into doctors, lawyers, beggars or thieves, was
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Arnold Gesell
c) William James
d) B. F. Skinner
e) John Watson
4. Whether genetics or the environment is the major influence on development is the focus of which issue that underlies the study of human development?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Stability versus instability
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Qualitative versus quantitative
5. Paul's father is extremely aggressive and so is Paul. Whether Paul inherited his aggressive tendencies or learned them is related to which question of development?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Stability versus instability
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Longitudinal versus cross-sectional
6. To determine the role of nature versus nurture in particular human traits, developmental researchers use all of the following EXCEPT
a) familial association studies.
b) environmental deprivation studies.
c) adoptee studies.
d) twin studies.
e) kinship studies.
7. Whether development is characterized by quantitative or qualitative change is the focus of which underlying question in developmental psychology?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Stability versus instability
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Longitudinal versus cross-sectional
8. In developmental psychology, quantitative is to ________ as qualitative is to ________.
a) discontinuity; continuity
b) stability; instability
c) universal; culture-specific
d) culture-specific; universal
e) continuity; discontinuity
9. Your psychology professor lectures on evidence suggesting that certain personality traits remain consistent over time, whereas others change with age. With which question of development is your professor's lecture concerned?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Stability versus instability
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Qualitative versus quantitative
10. Researchers have found that aborigine children demonstrate certain cognitive abilities several years later than Western European children. This finding is related to which question of development?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Stability versus instability
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Qualitative versus quantitative
11. Antoine's second-grade teacher is astonished to learn that he has become a career military officer. When he was in second grade he was the class clown, was undisciplined, and did very poorly. This turn of events is related to which question of development?
a) Continuity versus discontinuity
b) Qualitative versus quantitative
c) Nature versus nurture
d) Universal versus culture-specific
e) Stability versus instability
12. In a longitudinal study,
a) people of the same age are observed at multiple time points.
b) people of the same age are observed at one point in time.
c) people of different ages are studied at one point in time.
d) people of different ages are studied at multiple time points.
e) one or more individuals are studied in depth.
13. What are the two most frequently used methods for studying developmental changes?
a) Experiment and case study
b) Cross-sequential and cross-sectional
c) Longitudinal and case study
d) Cohort and cross-sectional
e) Cross-sectional and longitudinal
14. Lewis Terman's famous study of intellectually gifted children is an example of which type of research design?
a) Cross-sequential
b) Cross-sectional
c) Factor analysis
d) Experimental
e) Longitudinal
15. Which of the following is the main advantage of the longitudinal method of studying developmental changes?
a) The cohort effect
b) The low cost
c) The short span of time required for the study
d) The ability to observe changes in the same individual over time
e) The representativeness of the sample and its generalizability to the population at large
16. Developmental psychologist Lynn Bagley conducts research in which she studies groups of people of different ages at one time. Dr. Bagley is using what sort of study?
a) Longitudinal
b) Cross-sectional
c) Sequential group
d) Cross-sequential
e) Multiple case study
17. Julia's study purported to chart the decline of eye-hand coordination as people age. Her sample consisted of one group of 30-year-olds and another of 60-year-olds. The results showed a significant difference in eye-hand coordination between the two groups, and Julia concluded that the ability does decline markedly. Her study is flawed because she overlooked the fact that the 30-year-olds had improved their eye-hand coordination by playing video games in their teens, something the earlier generation of 60-year-olds did not do. In other words, she neglected to take into consideration the
a) cross-sectional effect.
b) discontinuity effect.
c) cohort effect.
d) zone of proximal development.
e) scaffolding effect.
18. Discuss the four questions that have shaped the study of human development.
19. Each sperm cell contains a(n) ________ chromosome, and each ovum contains ________ chromosome(s)
a) Y; an X
b) X; a Y
c) X or a Y; an X
d) Y; an X or a Y
e) X and a Y; two X
20. Where does fertilization typically occur?
a) In the interior of the uterus
b) In the cervix
c) In the vagina
d) In an ovary
e) In a fallopian tube
21. What is a zygote?
a) A sperm cell
b) An unfertilized egg cell
c) A fertilized egg cell
d) The developing organism from implantation to about the eighth week
e) The developing organism in the later stages of prenatal development
22. What is the correct order of stages in prenatal development?
a) Germinal, embryonic, fetal
b) Germinal, fetal, embryonic
c) Embryonic, germinal, fetal
d) Embryonic, fetal, germinal
e) Fetal, germinal, embryonic
23. Sharon is in the fourth week of her pregnancy. At which stage of prenatal development is her offspring?
a) Uterine
b) Fetal
c) Germinal
d) Amniotic
e) Embryonic
24. In prenatal development, the time between conception and about week 2 is called the
a) germinal stage.
b) fetal stage.
c) embryonic stage.
d) first trimester.
e) fertilization stage.
25. The protective environment inside the mother's uterus is called the ________, and nutrients and waste materials are exchanged between mother and embryo via the ________.
a) amniotic sac; placenta
b) placenta; amniotic sac
c) placenta; neural tube
d) umbilical cord; placenta
e) amniotic sac; neural tube
26. The umbilical cord connects the
a) neural tube to the placenta.
b) placenta to the amniotic sac.
c) amniotic sac to the embryo.
d) embryo and fetus to the placenta.
e) embryo and fetus to the amniotic sac.
27. Xan's offspring is in the embryonic stage of development. Which of the following is occurring for Xan's offspring?
a) It is kicking and making its movements felt.
b) It is about 14 inches in length.
c) It is beginning the process of implantation.
d) Its major organs are beginning to take shape.
e) It has a clearly recognizable human form.
28. The fetal stage of prenatal development lasts from
a) conception to week 2.
b) conception to week 8.
c) implantation to week 8.
d) week 9 through delivery.
e) week 12 through delivery.
29. The organism grows from about 4 inches in length to about 14 inches and from about 1 ounce of weight to about 2 pounds during the
a) germinal stage.
b) first trimester.
c) second trimester.
d) third trimester.
e) embryonic stage.
30. Francesca, who is pregnant, has just felt the movements of her developing offspring for the first time. Given what you know about prenatal development, at which month of pregnancy would you estimate Francesca to be?
a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) Sixth
e) Eighth
31. The age of viability is the
a) youngest age at which it is safe for a female to be pregnant.
b) youngest age at which an embryo is likely to survive if born prematurely.
c) youngest age at which a fetus is capable of sustaining life on its own.
d) optimal age for women to become pregnant.
e) point in the pregnancy when the danger of miscarriage has passed.
32. Sarah was born prematurely. This means that she
a) was born prior to 40 weeks of gestation.
b) was born prior to 37 weeks of gestation.
c) weighed less than 5 pounds at birth.
d) weighed less than 2,500 grams at birth.
e) weighed less than 2 pounds at birth.
33. Twenty-three-year-old Venetia is thinking about getting pregnant. Her doctor recommends that Venetia begin taking folic acid supplements in order to reduce the risk of what to her offspring?
a) Miscarriage
b) Down syndrome
c) Neural tube defects
d) Cerebral palsy
e) Sudden infant death syndrome
34. Which of the following conditions is a neural tube defect?
a) Spina bifida
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Down syndrome
d) Cerebral palsy
e) Rubella
35. Nolan was born with a hole in the tube surrounding his spinal cord. Which disorder does Nolan have?
a) Down syndrome
b) Teratogenesis
c) Spina bifida
d) Rubella
e) Cystic fibrosis
36. Teratogen is derived from the Greek word teras, which means
a) abnormal.
b) risk.
c) bad.
d) monster.
e) problem.
37. All of the following are examples of teratogens EXCEPT
a) folic acid.
b) lead.
c) X-rays.
d) mercury.
e) infectious organisms.
38. Teratogens that damage the arms and legs are most likely to have an effect during which weeks of pregnancy?
a) Weeks 1 and 2
b) Weeks 4 to 8
c) Weeks 10 to 12
d) Weeks 20 to 25
e) Weeks 30 to 32
39. Rubella is also known as
a) chicken pox.
b) mumps.
c) German measles.
d) whooping cough.
e) FAS.
40. Tara contracts rubella during the early part of her pregnancy. Her offspring is at increased risk for developing
a) heart disease.
b) lung disease.
c) liver damage.
d) facial deformities.
e) blindness.
41. Impaired hearing and vision, deformed teeth and bones, and liver damage may occur as a result of which teratogen?
a) Congenital syphilis
b) Rubella
c) Lead
d) Alcohol
e) Nicotine
42. Celia smokes heavily throughout her pregnancy. Celia is increasing the risk of what to her offspring?
a) Deformed arms and legs
b) Spina bifida
c) Sudden infant death syndrome
d) Liver damage
e) Deafness
43. Diane's son Lance was born prematurely and weighed very little compared to other premature infants. At age four, he was diagnosed with asthma. Now that he's six years old and has undergone testing in school, he has been found to have a low IQ, a reduced attention span, and hyperactivity. It is most likely that Lance was prenatally exposed to which teratogen?
a) Alcohol
b) Nicotine
c) Rubella
d) Syphilis
e) German measles
44. Which of the following statements is true about maternal use of alcohol during pregnancy?
a) Fetal alcohol syndrome is the leading preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States.
b) Fetal alcohol syndrome affects about 10,000 babies in the United States every year.
c) Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with such facial deformities as an overly prominent nose, an overdeveloped upper jaw, and closely spaced eyes.
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome occurs only in babies of women who drink heavily during pregnancy.
e) Maternal use of alcohol during pregnancy is linked to sudden infant death syndrome.
45. Regarding the effects of teratogens on prenatal development, it appears that
a) the embryonic stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
b) the fetal stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
c) the germinal stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
d) the amniotic stage is the stage most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
e) all of the stages have an equal risk of major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
46. Sophia, who just found out that she is pregnant, is being tested to see whether she is a carrier of sickle cell anemia. What test is she having?
a) A blood test
b) A fetal DNA test
c) Amniocentesis
d) Chorionic villus sampling
e) An ultrasound
47. Ursula, who is seventeen weeks pregnant, has a prenatal test in which fluid containing fetal cells is extracted and analyzed for biochemical and chromosomal abnormalities. Which prenatal test is Ursula having performed?
a) Babinski test
b) Parental blood testing
c) Ultrasound imaging
d) Chorionic villus sampling
e) Amniocentesis
48. Which prenatal test uses tissue samples from the membrane that holds the amniotic sac and fetus?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Ultrasound
c) Choriocentesis
d) Chorionic villus sampling
e) Parental blood test sampling
49. Ajit has a chromosomal disorder that has caused him to be mentally retarded. In addition, Ajit has facial abnormalities. What disorder does Ajit have?
a) Tay-Sachs disease
b) Fetal alcohol syndrome
c) Spina bifida
d) Sickle cell anemia
e) Down syndrome
50. The chorion is a membrane that
a) contains the fetus and amniotic sac.
b) develops into the nervous system.
c) contains the placenta and umbilical cord.
d) connects the umbilical cord and amniotic sac.
e) allows exchange of nutrients and waste products.
51. Which of the following can be detected by chorionic villus sampling?
a) Sudden infant death syndrome
b) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
c) Down syndrome
d) Fetal alcohol syndrome
e) Tay-Sachs disease
52. Down syndrome results when there
a) is a missing chromosome from the 21st pair of chromosomes.
b) is an extra chromosome present on the 21st pair of chromosomes.
c) are no chromosomes in the 21st position.
d) is an extra pair of chromosomes in the 21st position.
e) is genetic material missing from one of the chromosomes in the 21st pair.
53. Cora, a 49-year-old woman, has just found out that she is pregnant with her first baby. What is the probability that the baby will have Down syndrome?
a) 1 in 365
b) 1 in 109
c) 1 in 32
d) 1 in 11
e) 1 in 4
54. An image of the fetus and amniotic sac is provided by which prenatal technique?
a) Chorionic villus sampling
b) Ultrasound
c) Amniocentesis
d) Intraplacental recording
e) Parental blood testing
55. Explain the stages of prenatal development.
56. An unlearned response to a particular stimulus is a(n)
a) instinct.
b) habit.
c) reflex.
d) reaction.
e) skill.
57. When two-week-old Carson's father strokes the baby's left cheek, Carson turns his head to the left. Carson's response is called the
a) sucking reflex.
b) eyeblink reflex.
c) Moro reflex.
d) rooting reflex.
e) Babinski reflex.
58. In the Moro reflex, an infant
a) blinks for protection against light or foreign objects.
b) extends its arms and arches its back when its head falls backward.
c) turns its head toward a cheek that has been touched.
d) fans out and curls its toes when the sole of its foot is stroked.
e) curls its fingers around an object that touches the palm.
59. Which reflex may have had the survival value in ancestral times of preventing infants from falling as their mothers carried them around all day?
a) The Moro reflex
b) The palmar grasp reflex
c) The Babinski reflex
d) The rooting reflex
e) The sucking reflex
60. Which reflex protected infants from bright lights and small flying objects?
a) The rooting reflex
b) The Moro reflex
c) The palmar grasp reflex
d) The Babinski reflex
e) The eyeblink reflex
61. When the sole of her foot is stroked, 3-week-old Pam curls and fans her toes. Pam is demonstrating which reflex?
a) Babinski
b) Moro
c) Rooting
d) Palmar grasp
e) Sucking
62. Which of the following statements is true about infant reflexes?
a) The Babinski and Moro reflexes help infants obtain nourishment.
b) The timely presence and disappearance of reflexes is used to gauge neurological development.
c) Most newborn reflexes disappear in the second half of the first year of life.
d) All of the infant reflexes have important survival value today.
e) The basic reflexes develop in the first couple of weeks after birth.
63. What is the biological unfolding of an organism according to its underlying genetic blueprint called?
a) Adaptation
b) Scaffolding
c) Imprinting
d) Assimilation
e) Maturation
64. Maturation is development that is
a) the result of experience.
b) unaffected by genetics.
c) in response to environmental conditions.
d) primarily a function of genetics.
e) learned.
65. Which factor primarily explains why children today are taller on average than children of a century ago?
a) Maturation
b) Improved living conditions
c) Eradication of diseases such as small pox
d) Enhanced parental knowledge
e) Improved nutrition
66. The increase in brain volume between birth and adulthood is due mainly to ________ and ________.
a) formation of synaptic connections; myelination
b) formation of synaptic connections; decreased metabolic activity
c) formation of myelin sheath; neuronal development
d) decreased metabolic activity; neuronal development
e) decreased metabolic activity; formation of synaptic connections
67. Gregor weighed 7 pounds at birth. About how much is he expected to weigh on his first birthday?
a) 11 or 12 pounds
b) 14 or 15 pounds
c) 21 or 22 pounds
d) 28 or 29 pounds
e) 32 or 33 pounds
68. If newborn Fannie is 20 inches long at birth, how tall is she expected to be at her first birthday?
a) About 25 inches
b) About 30 inches
c) About 34 inches
d) About 38 inches
e) About 42 inches
69. Of the five senses, which is the slowest to develop?
a) Vision
b) Hearing
c) Touch
d) Taste
e) Smell
70. If Miguel's son's development is normal, Miguel can expect that his son will develop depth perception by about what age?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
e) 18 months
71. Which of the following statements is true about infants' visual abilities?
a) Infants begin to visually track a moving object at around 3 months.
b) Newborn infants can recognize their mothers' faces.
c) Basic color vision develops prenatally.
d) Vision develops faster than the other senses.
e) Most infants develop depth perception at around 12 months.
72. Who used the visual cliff apparatus to study infant depth perception?
a) Jean Piaget
b) Theodore Simon
c) Harry Harlow
d) Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk
e) Mary Ainsworth and John Bowlby
73. Infant researcher Dr. Collins uses the visual cliff apparatus to test infants' sensory abilities. What, specifically, is Dr. Collins studying?
a) Depth perception
b) Color vision
c) Sound discrimination
d) Visual discrimination
e) Visual tracking
74. A normal, six-day-old baby can be expected to do which of the following?
a) Distinguish components of music, such as pitch and tempo
b) Retain memory for faces
c) Discriminate among happy, angry, and neutral facial expressions
d) Discern his mother's voice from other voices
e) Differentiate between various speech sounds, such as "ba" and "ma"
75. Infants show preferences for sweets at
a) birth.
b) 2 weeks of age.
c) 1 month of age.
d) 6 months of age.
e) 9 months of age.
76. Expectant parents Brad and Jaime took special care in choosing the paint colors for the baby's nursery. At what age will the baby have the ability to see them as pink and lilac, rather than as shades of gray?
a) A few hours after birth
b) At 2 weeks of age
c) At 8 weeks of age
d) At 6 months of age
e) At 1 year of age
77. If Felicity's development is average, she can be expected to discriminate among happy, angry, and neutral facial expressions at what age?
a) At birth
b) 2 to 4 weeks
c) 1 to 2 months
d) 4 to 6 months
e) 10 to 12 months
78. If an infant has learned to activate a crib mobile by kicking and she then retains the memory of the behavior for several days, that infant can be as young as
a) 1 month.
b) 2 months.
c) 4 months.
d) 6 months.
e) 8 months.
79. Pedro just began lifting his chin and bringing objects to his mouth. What age would you guess Pedro to be?
a) Less than 2 weeks old
b) 2 to 4 weeks old
c) 4 to 8 weeks old
d) 2 to 3 months old
e) 4 to 6 months old
80. If 6-month-old Mikhail's development is normal, he can be expected to do which of the following?
a) Stand while holding on
b) Sit without support
c) Stand without support
d) Walk while holding on
e) Roll over
81. At the end of her first year, Evana has mastered the most difficult balancing problem she will ever encounter in her life. What skill has she mastered?
a) Walking
b) Crawling
c) Creeping
d) Balancing on one foot
e) Standing without support
82. A typical infant can stand without support by around
a) 5 months.
b) 7 months.
c) 9 months.
d) 12 months.
e) 15 months.
83. Every morning since she was 2 weeks old, Angela has been greeted by the smiling face of her nanny, Suzy. At what age will Angela begin to have the ability to retain a memory of what Suzy's face looks like?
a) At 1 month
b) At 3 months
c) At 4 months
d) At 6 months
e) At 8 months
84. When are newborn infants typically capable of imitating their parents' facial expressions?
a) Within minutes of their birth
b) At about 1 week of age
c) At about 2 weeks of age
d) At about 4 weeks of age
e) At about 2 months of age
85. Define the term reflex, and describe six reflexes that young infants have.
86. Psychologists use which term to describe a characteristic style of behavior or disposition?
a) Habit
b) Temperament
c) Reflex
d) Instinct
e) Personality
87. The New York Longitudinal Study (NYLS) was a landmark study of
a) attachment.
b) temperament.
c) learning.
d) parenting styles.
e) peer relationships.
88. The New York Longitudinal Study identified ________ types of temperament, which are called ________.
a) four; secure, insecure-avoidant, disorganized, and insecure-resistant
b) three; easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up
c) three; Types A, B, and C
d) three; permissive, authoritarian, and authoritative
e) two; assimilating and accommodating
89. The New York Longitudinal Study found that about how many children could be classified into one of three temperament groups?
a) 52 percent
b) 65 percent
c) 75 percent
d) 83 percent
e) 97 percent
90. Eight-month-old Finnegan is playful and responds positively to changes. He generally has a happy mood, and he quickly developed a regular sleeping and feeding schedule. Using terminology from the New York Longitudinal Study, Finnegan would be categorized as what type of child?
a) Pleasant
b) Secure
c) Positive
d) Easy
e) Slow-to-warm-up
91. In the New York Longitudinal Study of temperament, the majority of children were classified as which type of children?
a) Secure
b) Slow-to-warm-up
c) Mixed
d) Difficult
e) Easy
92. Children who react negatively to change and are generally irritable are classified as having what kind of temperament?
a) Strong-willed
b) Insecure
c) Contrary
d) Difficult
e) Slow-to-warm-up
93. Six-month-old Charlotte exhibits the characteristics of a slow-to-warm-up temperament. Which of the following would be a typical behavior for Charlotte?
a) Exhibiting a high activity level
b) Showing interest in novel stimuli
c) Becoming overly excited in strange surroundings
d) Adjusting easily to new situations
e) Withdrawing from an unfamiliar setting
94. In descriptions of temperament, another term for "slow-to-warm-up" is
a) difficult.
b) detached.
c) inhibited.
d) insecure.
e) avoidant.
95. What type of infant temperament is associated with the best adjustment in adulthood?
a) Inhibited
b) Slow-to-warm-up
c) Difficult
d) Easy
e) Secure
96. Compared to the other temperament groups, difficult infants tend to
a) have earlier and better language development.
b) be well adjusted as adults.
c) be subdued.
d) not be "pushovers."
e) be calm and easily soothed
97. Dawn's two-year-old son, Trevor, has a difficult temperament. It's likely that Trevor will become an aggressive preschooler if Dawn treats him in what way?
a) In an easygoing, laissez-faire manner
b) In a punitive and unresponsive manner
c) In a manner that lets him see her as a "pushover"
d) In a strict but loving manner
e) Spoiling him by granting his every wish
98. The formation, in a newborn animal, to the first moving object seen after birth is called
a) bonding.
b) attachment.
c) autonomy.
d) adaptation.
e) imprinting.
99. Are bonding and attachment different, and if so, how?
a) Yes;, bonding happens in animals, and attachment happens in humans.
b) Yes; bonding happens only with mothers, whereas attachment happens with mothers or fathers.
c) Yes; bonding is the parent's tie to the infant, whereas attachment is the infant's tie to the caregiver.
d) Yes; the environment primarily influences bonding, whereas attachment is influenced primarily by genetics.
e) No, they are not different; they are alternative terms for the same concept.
100. Who conducted famous studies on imprinting in geese and other species?
a) Erik Erikson
b) Harry Harlow
c) John Bowlby
d) Konrad Lorenz
e) Lev Vygotsky
101. In the film Fly Away Home, a group of abandoned goslings develop a strong bond with a young girl. Because their mother is not there, the girl teaches the geese to fly using an ultralite airplane. This film is a good example of which concept from developmental psychology?
a) Attachment
b) Parenting styles
c) Conservation
d) Temperament
e) Imprinting
102. Who was the first theorist to focus on the study of attachment in human infants?
a) John Bowlby
b) Harry Harlow
c) Diana Baumrind
d) Konrad Lorenz
e) Mary Ainsworth
103. In their landmark study with rhesus monkeys, the Harlows found that infant monkeys, who had been separated from their biological mothers, showed preference for and attachment to which type of mother?
a) A human female
b) A human male
c) One made out of wire and a bottle
d) One made out of soft terry-cloth
e) A mechanical one that moved and made noise
104. In their research with baby rhesus monkeys, what did the Harlows demonstrate to be a strong determinant of attachment?
a) Comfort contact
b) An affectionate mother
c) Food
d) Communication
e) Temperament
105. Who proposed the idea that infants and young children need to use their parents as a "secure base" from which to venture into unfamiliar situations?
a) John Bowlby
b) Diana Baumrind
c) Erik Erikson
d) Jean Piaget
e) Mary Ainsworth
106. The Strange Situation was developed to study
a) imprinting in geese.
b) attachment in monkeys.
c) attachment in human infants.
d) bonding with surrogate mothers.
e) temperament of human infants.
107. In the original attachment research using the Strange Situation, about what percentage of infants showed an insecure-resistant pattern of attachment?
a) Less than 2 percent
b) About 10 percent
c) About 20 percent
d) About 35 percent
e) Between 65 and 70 percent
108. In her original research on attachment, Ainsworth noted that the majority of infants displayed which style of attachment?
a) Secure
b) Slow-to-warm-up
c) Disorganized/disoriented
d) Insecure-avoidant
e) Insecure-resistant
109. When 11-month-old Ethan is in a new environment, he feels free to explore. However, he periodically "checks in" with his caregiver during exploration. If his caregiver leaves the room, Ethan sometimes cries and limits his exploration. Upon his caregiver's return, Ethan gives a warm greeting and then begins his exploration again. Generalizing from research on attachment, Ethan's attachment would be described as
a) easy.
b) secure.
c) disorganized.
d) insecure-avoidant.
e) insecure-resistant.
110. Is there one attachment style that is exhibited by a majority of middle-class infants in Western cultures?
a) Yes, the disorganized/disoriented attachment style
b) Yes, the insecure-avoidant attachment style
c) Yes, the insecure-resistant attachment style
d) Yes, the secure attachment style
e) No; the attachment styles are distributed equally among infants
111. Dr. Betts conducts a study of infant attachment. One child, Leon, seems confused during the observation period. He is unable to directly approach his caregiver, even when he is very distressed. It appears that Leon does not have a consistent strategy for dealing with separations and reunions. Betts classifies Leon's attachment style as
a) insecure-avoidant.
b) insecure-resistant.
c) insecure-difficult.
d) insecure-slow-to-warm-up.
e) disorganized/disoriented.
112. Which of the following statements is true of what research has revealed about attachment?
a) Attachment behaviors have no effect on development beyond infancy.
b) The Strange Situation is an appropriate method for measuring attachment behaviors in children from non-Western cultures.
c) Mothers often recreate, with their children, the types of attachment relationships they had with their own mothers.
d) The quality of maternal care has no bearing on whether or not an infant develops a secure attachment.
e) Cross-culturally, the majority of infants show an insecure pattern of attachment.
113. In early childhood, Shandra developed the idea that people are not to be trusted and are undependable. Shandra's expectancies about how others are likely to respond in close relationships is called a(n)
a) attachment-avoidance paradigm.
b) internal working model.
c) faulty attributional style.
d) irreversible expectation.
e) mistrust schema.
114. Bowlby believed that children who form secure attachments in infancy would develop an internal working model of others as ________ and of themselves as ________.
a) needy; trustworthy and dependable
b) self-centered; self-sufficient
c) cold and unloving; incapable of having a loving relationship
d) dependable and trustworthy; deserving love
e) loving and giving; needy
115. Which of the following statements is true about attachment?
a) Securely attached infants are likelier to develop higher self-esteem when they grow up.
b) There is no correlation between mothers' attachment styles and those of their infants.
c) Securely attached infants are likely to show greater dependence on others when they grow up.
d) There is no correlation between emotional health in adulthood and attachment style in infancy.
e) There is no correspondence between infancy attachment patterns and the close relationships of adulthood.
116. If Derek is like the average American father, he is more likely than his wife to engage in which of the following activities with his infant son?
a) Feeding him
b) Changing his diaper
c) Playing physically with him
d) Bathing him
e) Singing to him
117. Compared to Chinese, Malaysian, and Indian fathers, American fathers tend to engage their children more in what type of play?
a) Physical
b) Cooperative
c) Give-and-take
d) Intellectual
e) Quiet
118. Generalizing from research on cultural differences in parenting, which cultural group is most likely to encourage strong kinship bonds, distribution of child care responsibilities among different family members, and a focus on the grandmother as the direct provider of child care?
a) African American
b) Hispanic American
c) Chinese
d) Japanese
e) European American
119. In which culture is there a particularly strong emphasis on respect for parental authority?
a) Hispanic American
b) European American
c) African American
d) Traditional Hispanic
e) Asian
120. Chris and Pat set limits for their children without being overcontrolling. Which style of parenting are they using?
a) Authoritative
b) Authoritarian
c) Permissive
d) Assertive
e) Secure
121. Among parenting styles, rigid is to ________ as lax is to ________.
a) authoritative; permissive
b) authoritarian; authoritative
c) permissive; authoritarian
d) permissive; authoritative
e) authoritarian; permissive
122. Sociocultural differences aside, research on parenting styles suggests that the most effective parenting style is
a) authoritative.
b) authoritarian.
c) permissive.
d) secure.
e) assertive.
123. Aimee was late coming home from school. Even though she had a reasonable excuse, her parents grounded her for a month and suspended her allowance. This sounds like which style of parenting?
a) Authoritarian
b) Authoritative
c) Permissive
d) Inhibited
e) Assertive
124. Andrew took the family car without permission. He seriously damaged it while joyriding. A week later, his parents bought him a car of his own. This is an example of which parenting style?
a) Authoritarian
b) Authoritative
c) Permissive
d) Restrictive
e) Inconsistent
125. After studying the topic of parenting styles in psychology class and learning that children of authoritative parents have the most positive outcomes, Abigail was determined to become an authoritative mother. Accordingly, when interacting with her daughter, Tammy, what is one thing that she should do?
a) Encourage Tammy to keep her opinions to herself and obey authority figures.
b) Avoid demonstrative shows of affection.
c) Encourage Tammy to adopt more mature behaviors.
d) Refrain from explaining rules or the rationale for rules.
e) Use praise sparingly.
126. Other factors being equal, which child is at highest risk for negative outcomes in adolescence, such as poor school performance and low self-confidence?
a) A boy raised by permissive parents
b) A girl raised by permissive parents
c) A boy raised by authoritarian parents
d) A girl raised by authoritarian parents
e) A boy or girl raised by authoritative parents
127. Compared to children with friends, peer-rejected children
a) have higher self-esteem.
b) are perceived as less sensitive and caring.
c) are more enthusiastic about attending school.
d) do better on achievement measures.
e) exhibit less antisocial behavior.
128. Which theorist identified stages of psychosocial development?
a) Lev Vygotsky
b) Mary Ainsworth
c) Jean Piaget
d) Sigmund Freud
e) Erik Erikson
129. Harriet is working on building a sense of independence and self-control. Generalizing from Erikson's theory, Harriet is probably in which age group?
a) Infancy
b) Toddlerhood
c) Preschool
d) Middle childhood
e) Adolescence
130. Ten-month-old Kazik's parents are very sensitive to her needs. Whenever she cries, someone tries to comfort her. She will probably effectively resolve which psychosocial crisis?
a) Autonomy versus shame and doubt
b) Initiative versus guilt
c) Trust versus mistrust
d) Industry versus inferiority
e) Identity versus role diffusion
131. What is the correct sequence of psychosocial stages in child development?
a) Industry versus inferiority, autonomy versus shame and doubt, trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt
b) Autonomy versus shame and doubt, initiative versus guilt, trust versus mistrust, industry versus inferiority
c) Autonomy versus shame and doubt, trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority
d) Trust versus mistrust, initiative versus guilt, autonomy versus shame and doubt, industry versus inferiority
e) Trust versus mistrust, autonomy versus shame and doubt, initiative versus guilt, industry versus inferiority
132. Twenty-four-month-old Eleanor is beginning to desire more independence. She does not like her parents to feed her. Her parents are willing to let her feed herself, even though there is often a big mess. Eleanor is probably going to leave this stage of development with a feeling of
a) initiative.
b) trust.
c) shame and doubt.
d) autonomy.
e) mistrust.
133. Two-year-old Donatella has just been successfully toilet trained by her mother. One day, while at a birthday party, she got so involved in playing "pin the tail on the donkey" that she neglected to ask to go to the bathroom and wet her pants. When her mother yelled at her in front of the other children, it is likely that she contributed to Donatella's developing feelings of
a) inferiority and helplessness.
b) shame and doubt.
c) guilt and sadness.
d) mistrust and selfishness.
e) dependence and lack of control.
134. Amy is an assistant teacher of four-year-olds at a preschool. After taking her college developmental psychology class, Amy determines that the majority of her students will be dealing with which psychosocial crisis?
a) Autonomy versus shame and doubt
b) Trust versus mistrust
c) Initiative versus guilt
d) Industry versus inferiority
e) Identity versus role diffusion
135. Toma is almost five years old. As he was struggling to learn to tie his shoes, his parents became exasperated with him and bought him shoes with Velcro closures. When he tried to make himself breakfast, he ended up spilling cereal and milk all over the floor, causing his mother to forbid him to go into the kitchen by himself again. According to Erikson's theory, Toma may end up with a feeling of
a) shame.
b) guilt.
c) mistrust.
d) inferiority.
e) doubt.
136. Fourth-grade teacher Julie Farraday finds that her students are very eager to be helpful. They seem to care about being productive and involved in the class, as well as in their school. Farraday's students seem to be successfully negotiating the stage of psychosocial development known as
a) autonomy versus shame and doubt.
b) trust versus mistrust.
c) initiative versus guilt.
d) identity versus role diffusion.
e) industry versus inferiority.
137. Pierre's second-grade teacher is very critical of all his work. She rarely praises him and frequently ridicules even his best efforts. As a result, Pierre is reluctant to attempt new tasks. Erikson's theory predicts that Pierre is likely to end up with a sense of
a) mistrust.
b) guilt.
c) inferiority.
d) shame and doubt.
e) insecurity.
138. Research examining the effects of full-time day care on infant attachment has found
a) strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment.
b) strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment, but only in high-quality day care settings.
c) mixed evidence regarding effects of day care's interference with attachment.
d) no strong evidence that day care interferes with attachment.
e) compelling evidence that day care enhances attachment.
139. Researchers found that compared to children who were raised with a stay-at-home mom, children who attended day care
a) showed deficient language skills.
b) were socially immature.
c) were more dependent.
d) were less cooperative.
e) were more aggressive.
140. Summarize Erikson's theory of psychosocial development (for childhood), including for each the stage name, approximate ages, and major psychosocial challenge.
141. Discuss Mary Ainsworth's attachment theory, with reference to the Strange Situation and the three basic attachment styles.
142. Who is considered to be the most important developmental theorist of all time?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Alfred Binet
c) Erik Erikson
d) Lev Vygotsky
e) Jean Piaget
143. Melissa demonstrated animistic thinking when she said,
a) "My cookie broke into many pieces, now I have more cookie."
b) "It's raining because I got a new umbrella."
c) "My teddy bear fell and got a boo boo. It really hurts him."
d) "Mr. Rogers must be very small to fit inside the television."
e) "Stop signs are red because that's my favorite color."
144. June exhibited egocentric thinking when she
a) showed a lack of concern for a child who fell off the swing.
b) failed to understand that a pretzel broken in two contains the same amount of pretzel as a whole one.
c) spoke to her doll as if it was a person.
d) watched the TV by standing between her brother and the television program he was watching.
e) acted selfishly and refused to share her many orange slices with her hungry friend.
145. Piaget's primary research technique involved
a) rigorous experimental methodology.
b) long questionnaires.
c) extensive surveys.
d) careful observation.
e) twin studies.
146. What is Piaget's term for an organized system of mental representations used to understand the world?
a) Schema
b) Reflex
c) Instinct
d) Operation
e) Hierarchy
147. What general term does Piaget use for the process of changing to function more effectively in meeting challenges?
a) Maturation
b) Adaptation
c) Conservation
d) Centration
e) Habituation
148. Philip has a toy horse that he calls "Horsey." When Uncle Joe brings him a donkey piñata from Mexico, Philip yells "Horsey." Philip is exhibiting
a) object permanence.
b) conservation.
c) assimilation.
d) accommodation.
e) irreversibility.
149. In Piaget's terminology, changing existing schemas to incorporate new information is called
a) reversibility.
b) assimilation.
c) accommodation.
d) conservation.
e) habituation.
150. What is the correct sequencing of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?
a) Concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational
b) Preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor
c) Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
d) Sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational
e) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
151. In Piaget's theory, object permanence is to ________ as conservation is to ________.
a) concrete operations; sensorimotor
b) sensorimotor; preoperations
c) sensorimotor; formal operations
d) formal operational; concrete operations
e) sensorimotor; concrete operations
152. Third-grade teacher Ben Stallworth can expect that the majority of his eight- and nine-year-old students are in which stage of cognitive development?
a) Concrete operational
b) Initiative versus guilt
c) Preoperational
d) Formal operational
e) Industry versus inferiority
153. According to Piaget, full cognitive maturity occurs in which stage of cognitive development?
a) Concrete operational
b) Sensorimotor
c) Preoperational
d) Accommodational
e) Formal operational
154. Twenty-month-old Hannah realizes that her mother still exists even when Hannah cannot see her. What cognitive achievement has Hannah mastered?
a) Egocentrism
b) Object permanence
c) Conservation
d) Understanding of abstractions
e) Centration
155. Which activity might allow Gwyneth to help her six-month-old granddaughter develop object permanence?
a) Playing peek-a-boo with her
b) Singing the alphabet song with her
c) Singing songs like "Itsy Bitsy Spider"
d) Playing patty-cake with her
e) Reading children's books to her
156. Which of the following is characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?
a) Egocentrism
b) Conservation
c) Reversibility
d) Deductive thinking
e) Abstract thinking
157. The tendency to view the world only from one's own perspective is
a) centration.
b) authoritarianism.
c) conservation.
d) egocentrism.
e) self-centeredness.
158. Nine-year-old Dakoda realizes that the quantity of water in a glass remains the same, even when the water is poured into a different-shaped glass and appears to look like more or less. In Piaget's terms, Dakoda has developed
a) conservation.
b) assimilation.
c) accommodation.
d) object permanence.
e) centration.
159. An average child in the concrete operational stage of cognitive development can be expected to do which of the following?
a) Think hypothetically
b) Follow an argument from premise to conclusion and back again
c) Use deductive thinking
d) Conserve volume
e) Generate hypotheses
160. Critics of Piaget's work on cognitive development say that
a) he regarded children as passive responders to their environment.
b) he overestimated the abilities of younger children.
c) he failed to see that the timing of the stages was culturally based.
d) development is not as continuous a process as he theorized.
e) children in other cultures do not pass through the same stages of intellectual development.
161. One difference between the Swiss children that Piaget studied and the aborigine children studied by Pierre Dasen is that the aborigine children
a) developed conservation some three years earlier.
b) had an easier time with conservation tasks than with spatial tasks.
c) excelled on quantification tasks.
d) excelled on spatial tasks.
e) were better at counting.
162. Vygotsky saw cognitive development through the lens of children's
a) egocentrism.
b) cultural and social worlds.
c) biological programming.
d) parental controls.
e) schemas.
163. In Vygotsky's terms, the range between a child's present level of skills and knowledge and the child's potential level of skills and knowledge with appropriate guidance is called the child's
a) space of scaffolding.
b) region of growth.
c) zone of proximal development.
d) zone of equilibrium.
e) schema space.
164. An educational technique that focuses on instruction at the zone of proximal development is called
a) reciprocal instruction.
b) scaffolding.
c) equilibrated teaching.
d) conservation.
e) shaping.
165. According to Vygotsky, the optimal relationship between adult and child is
a) as leader and follower.
b) as supervisor and employee.
c) one of equals.
d) as participator and spectator.
e) as tutor and student.
166. Describe Piaget's theory of cognitive development, including a discussion of his stages of cognitive development.
167. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends a daily maximum of how much quality television programming for children?
a) 30 minutes daily
b) 1 hour daily
c) 2 hours daily
d) 3 hours daily
e) 4 hours daily
168. If Andy is like the average two-year-old in the United States, how much television does he watch per day?
a) About 30 minutes
b) About 1 hour
c) About 2 hours
d) About 3 hours
e) About 4 hours
169. Regarding children's television viewing patterns, which of the following statements is true?
a) In the United States, young children under six yers of age spend about the same amount of time watching television as they do reading books.
b) One out of ten American children under the age of two has a television set in his or her bedroom.
c) Children who have a television in their bedroom are at greater risk for childhood obesity.
d) Children who spend more time watching television develop longer attention spans.
e) Viewing violence on television is a stronger predictor of aggressive behavior than is viewing live violence at home or in the community.
170. What are some research findings regarding the effect of television viewing on school performance?
a) There is no link between TV viewing and cognitive performance in the early grammar school years.
b) All TV viewing undermines the development of cognitive skills in the impressionable preschool years.
c) Regular TV viewing in elementary school is not related to behavioral problems in junior high school and high school.
d) Having a TV in the bedroom predicts poor performance on standardized math, language skills, and reading tests.
e) TV viewing actually improves attentional abilities.
171. After moving to a new house, Ira and Denise are debating whether to allow their child, who is in the third grade, to have a computer and/or a television in the bedroom. Based on the research regarding performance on standardized tests, what would psychologists advise them?
a) Say "No" to both.
b) Say "No" to the TV but "Yes" to the computer.
c) Say "Yes" to the TV but "No" to the computer.
d) Say "Yes" to both.
e) Say "No" to both if your child is a boy. Say "Yes" to both, if your child is a girl.
172. Your text makes all of the following parental recommendations for responsible television viewing, EXCEPT:
a) Regulate your children's television viewing for them.
b) Limit snacking while watching television.
c) Encourage children to develop other interests.
d) Watch television with your children.
e) Control exposure to news programs.
173. The text discusses the value of co-viewing with respect to television viewing by children. What is co-viewing?
a) Parents sharing the viewing experience with children
b) Having children watch television with their friends
c) Having children learn to regulate their television viewing together with the parent
d) Sharing of television viewing between siblings
e) Multitasking; that is, encouraging children to have a snack, draw a picture, or read a book in front of the TV
174. Discuss how television viewing is related to children's aggressiveness, academic performance, eating habits, and leisure activities.


1.
The biological unfolding of an organism according to its underlying genetic code is called

A)
imprinting.

B)
germination.

C)
development.

D)
puberty.

E)
maturation.
2.
A fertilized egg cell is called a(n)

A)
teratogen.

B)
zygote.

C)
fetus.

D)
embryo.

E)
placenta.
3.
What is the correct order of stages in prenatal development?

A)
Germinal, embryonic, fetal

B)
Germinal, fetal, embryonic

C)
Embryonic, germinal, fetal

D)
Embryonic, fetal, germinal

E)
Fetal, germinal, embryonic
4.
The protective environment inside the mother's uterus is called the ______, and nutrients and waste materials are exchanged between the mother and embryo via the ______.

A)
amniotic sac; placenta

B)
placenta; amniotic sac

C)
placenta; neural tube

D)
umbilical cord; placenta

E)
amniotic sac; neural tube
5.
The age of viability refers to the

A)
youngest age at which it is safe for a female to be pregnant.

B)
youngest age at which an embryo is likely to survive if born prematurely.

C)
youngest age at which a fetus is capable of sustaining life on its own.

D)
optimal age for women to become pregnant.

E)
the point of pregnancy in which the mother should reduce her normal activities.
6.
Generalizing from the Greek word on which it is based, “teras,” which of the following words best describes the nature of a teratogen?

A)
Abnormal

B)
Risk

C)
Bad

D)
Monster

E)
Problem
7.
Teratogens that damage the arms and legs are most likely to have an effect during which weeks of pregnancy?

A)
Weeks 1 and 2

B)
Weeks 4 to 8

C)
Weeks 10 to 12

D)
Weeks 20 to 25

E)
Weeks 30 to 32
8.
Tara contracts Rubella during the early part of her pregnancy. Her offspring is at increased risk for developing

A)
heart disease, deafness, and mental retardation.

B)
lung disease and kidney damage.

C)
liver disease and kidney damage.

D)
facial deformities.

E)
asthma.
9.
Regarding the effects of teratogens on prenatal development, it appears that

A)
the embryonic stage is the one most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

B)
the fetal stage is the one most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

C)
the germinal stage is the one most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

D)
the amniotic stage is the one most susceptible to major structural abnormalities from teratogens.

E)
all of the stages have an equal risk of major structural abnormalities from teratogens.
10.
When two-week-old Carson's father strokes the baby's left cheek, Carson turns his head to the left. Carson's response is called the _______ reflex.

A)
sucking

B)
eyeblink

C)
Moro

D)
rooting

E)
Babinski
11.
In the Moro reflex, an infant

A)
blinks for protection against light or foreign objects.

B)
extends its arms and arches its back when its head falls backward or in response to loud noise.

C)
turns its head towards a cheek that has been touched.

D)
fans out and curls its toes when the sole of its foot is stroked.

E)
curls its fingers around an object that touches the palm.
12.
When are newborn infants typically capable of imitating their parents' facial expressions?

A)
Within minutes of their birth

B)
About 1 week of age

C)
About 2 weeks of age

D)
About 4 weeks of age

E)
About 2 months of age
13.
Eight-month-old Finnegan is playful and responds positively to changes. He generally has a happy mood, and he quickly developed a regular sleeping and feeding schedule. Using terminology from the New York Longitudinal Study, Finnegan would be categorized as a(n) ______ child.

A)
pleasant

B)
secure

C)
positive

D)
easy

E)
slow-to-warm-up
14.
Children who react negatively to change and are generally irritable are classified as having what kind of temperament?

A)
Resistant

B)
Insecure

C)
Avoidant

D)
Difficult

E)
Slow-to-warm-up
15.
Six-month-old Charlotte fits the characteristics of a slow-to-warm-up temperament. Charlotte would be expected to exhibit all but which of the following?

A)
Low activity level

B)
Interest in novel stimuli

C)
Need for more time in adjusting to new situations

D)
Mild distress in new situations

E)
Withdrawal in unfamiliar settings
16.
In their research with baby rhesus monkeys, the Harlows demonstrated that ______ was a strong determinant of attachment.

A)
contact comfort

B)
a secure base

C)
food

D)
quality of care

E)
temperament
17.
The Strange Situation was developed to study

A)
imprinting in birds.

B)
attachment in monkeys.

C)
attachment in human infants.

D)
bonding with surrogate mothers.

E)
temperament of human infants.
18.
When 11-month-old Ethan is in a new environment, he feels free to explore. However, he periodically “checks in” with his caregiver during exploration. If his caregiver leaves the room, Ethan sometimes cries and limits his exploration. Upon his caregiver's return, Ethan gives a warm greeting; then he begins his exploration again. Generalizing from research on attachment, Ethan's attachment would be described as

A)
easy.

B)
secure.

C)
disorganized.

D)
insecure-avoidant.

E)
insecure-resistant.
19.
Generalizing from attachment research, it appears that the majority of infants have which attachment style?

A)
Disorganized/disoriented

B)
Insecure-avoidant

C)
Insecure-resistant

D)
Secure

E)
None of the above; attachment styles are distributed equally among infants
20.
Research on attachment suggests that, compared to their less securely attached peers, securely attached infants are more likely to experience all but which of the following?

A)
Better self-esteem

B)
Better physical health

C)
Fewer behavior problems

D)
Better relationships with peers

E)
Better overall emotional health
21.
Chris and Pat set limits for their children without being overcontrolling. Which style of parenting are they using?

A)
Authoritative

B)
Authoritarian

C)
Permissive

D)
Assertive

E)
Assimilation
22.
Research on parenting styles suggests that the most effective parenting style is

A)
authoritative.

B)
authoritarian.

C)
permissive.

D)
secure.

E)
assertive.
23.
Aimee was late coming home from school. Even though she had a reasonable excuse, her parents grounded her for a month and suspended her allowance. This sounds like which style of parenting?

A)
Authoritarian

B)
Authoritative

C)
Permissive

D)
Inhibited

E)
Assertive
24.
Which theorist identified stages of psychosocial development?

A)
Lev Vygotsky

B)
Mary Ainsworth

C)
Jean Piaget

D)
Lawrence Kohlberg

E)
Erik Erikson
25.
Eleanor (24 months old) is beginning to desire more independence. She does not like her parents to feed her. Her parents are willing to let her feed herself, even though there is often a big mess. Eleanor is probably going to leave this stage of development with a feeling of

A)
initiative.

B)
trust.

C)
shame and doubt.

D)
autonomy.

E)
mistrust.
26.
Toma is almost 5 years old. As he was struggling to learn to tie his shoes, his parents became exasperated with him and bought him shoes with Velcro closures. When he had trouble learning to ride a two-wheeler with training wheels, his parents made him go back to a tricycle. According to Erikson's theory, Toma may end up with a feeling of

A)
shame.

B)
guilt.

C)
mistrust.

D)
inferiority.

E)
doubt.
27.
______ was the most influential theorist on cognitive development and may be considered the most important developmental theorist of all time.

A)
Lawrence Kohlberg

B)
Carol Gilligan

C)
Erik Erikson

D)
Lev Vygotsky

E)
Jean Piaget
28.
According to Piaget, a(n) ______ is an organized system of mental representations used to understand the world.

A)
schema

B)
reflex

C)
instinct

D)
operation

E)
hierarchy
29.
What general term does Piaget use for the process of changing to function more effectively in responding to environmental challenges?

A)
Equilibrium

B)
Adaptation

C)
Diffusion

D)
Conservation

E)
Habituation
30.
In Piaget's terminology, changing existing schemas to incorporate new information is called

A)
reversibility.

B)
assimilation.

C)
accommodation.

D)
conservation.

E)
schematization.
31.
According to Piaget, full cognitive maturity occurs in which stage of cognitive development?

A)
Concrete operational

B)
Sensorimotor

C)
Preoperational

D)
Accommodational

E)
Formal operational
32.
In Piaget's theory, the tendency to view the world only from one's own perspective is

A)
centration.

B)
authoritarianism.

C)
conservation.

D)
egocentrism.

E)
irreversibility.
33.
All but which of the following have been put forth as criticisms of Piaget's theory?

A)
His research techniques were not rigorous enough.

B)
He underestimated abilities of younger children.

C)
Development is really more continual and gradual than he proposed.

D)
He did not take cultural differences into account.

E)
He failed to account for changes in cognitive development that occur across different stages.
34.
In Vygotsky's terms, the range between a child's present level of skills and knowledge and their potential level of skills and knowledge with appropriate guidance is called the child's

A)
space of scaffolding.

B)
region of growth.

C)
zone of proximal development.

D)
zone of equilibrium.

E)
schema space.
35.
Which of the following is a secondary sex characteristic?

A)
Enlarged penis

B)
Enlarged testes

C)
Enlarged uterus

D)
Breast development

E)
Menarche
36.
Of the following characteristics Fiona experienced during puberty, which is a primary sex characteristic?

A)
Breast development

B)
Enlarged uterus

C)
Pubic hair and underarm hair

D)
Breast development and enlarged uterus

E)
Breast development, pubic hair, and underarm hair
37.
The ability to solve abstract problems is characteristic of someone in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

A)
Abstract operations

B)
Formal operations

C)
Concrete operations

D)
Preoperational

E)
Sensorimotor
38.
Kohlberg studied moral development by

A)
observing people's behavior.

B)
asking people to respond to moral dilemmas.

C)
administering large-scale surveys.

D)
using extensive questionnaires.

E)
conducting extensive interviews with women and men.
39.
Lawrence Kohlberg was interested in which aspect of development?

A)
Physical

B)
Social

C)
Intellectual

D)
Moral

E)
Emotional
40.
All of the following are stages in Kohlberg's theory EXCEPT

A)
social contract orientation.

B)
care and justice orientation.

C)
universal ethical principle orientation.

D)
obedience and punishment orientation.

E)
authority or law-and-order orientation.
41.
Harold says that hitting his sister is wrong because he will be punished if he does. Harold's reasoning reflects which level of moral development?

A)
Conventional

B)
Preconventional

C)
Postconventional

D)
Unconventional

E)
Preoperational
42.
Moral reasoning based on conformity with social rules is characteristic of which level of moral development?

A)
Conventional

B)
Preconventional

C)
Postconventional

D)
Unconventional

E)
Formal operational
43.
Carol Gilligan suggest that, when making moral decisions,

A)
women rely more on a care orientation and men rely more on a justice orientation.

B)
men rely more on a care orientation and women rely more on a justice orientation.

C)
women rely exclusively on a care orientation and men rely exclusively on a justice orientation.

D)
women and men both rely more on a care orientation than a justice orientation.

E)
men and women both rely  more on a justice orientation than a care orientation.
44.
The term identity crisis was coined by

A)
Elkind.

B)
Gilligan.

C)
Kohlberg.

D)
Erikson.

E)
Piaget.
45.
The ability to think abstractly and flexibly in solving problems is referred to as

A)
practical intelligence.

B)
fluid intelligence.

C)
applied intelligence.

D)
crystallized intelligence.

E)
emotional intelligence.
46.
The time in a woman's life when menstruation ends is called

A)
menarche.

B)
role diffusion.

C)
ovulation.

D)
midlife crisis.

E)
menopause.
47.
An influential theory of death and dying was developed by

A)
Erikson.

B)
Kübler-Ross.

C)
Arnett.

D)
Levinson.

E)
Gilligan.
48.
All of the following are stages in Kübler-Ross's model of death and dying EXCEPT

A)
depression.

B)
compensation.

C)
anger.

D)
denial.

E)
bargaining.
49.
______ is a bone disease characterized by loss of bone density in which the bones become porous, brittle, and more prone to fracture.

A)
Osteoporosis

B)
Menopause

C)
Menarche

D)
Dementia

E)
Spina bifida


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