Liberty University BUSI 340 quiz 5 solutions answers right

Liberty University BUSI 340 quiz 5 solutions answers right

How many versions: 6 different versions

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Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best described as

Team cohesiveness tends to be higher when

_____ provides an explanation of why people belong to informal groups

Pooled interdependence is

Teams with strong fault lines

Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):

Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines

According to social identity theory

The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it

Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double-check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team

The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people

Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's performance is measurable are two ways to

Safety representatives in each of the six plants of a manufacturing company need to communicate to each other every week the number and type of health and safety incidents in their plant. Each representative has a safety reporting document where he or she notes the type and number of infractions during the previous week. These incidents are well known to other representatives, so there are rarely any surprises. This weekly communication calls for

Listeners often engage in an automatic process of "catching" or sharing another person's emotions by mimicking that person's facial expressions and other nonverbal behavior. Which of the following drives causes this effect

Employees can expand the data-carrying capacity of lean media channel if they

When a sender and receiver, belonging to the same group, want to transmit technical information more efficiently, they should use

Which of the following should corporate leaders do with the organizational grapevine

In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately

Which of the following communication media tends to be the best for transmitting emotions

Buffering, summarizing, and omitting are ways to

In the communication process, filtering occurs when

You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as:

_____ refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people

Which of the following is a factor in social acceptance

Research suggests that effective workspace design mainly balances the trade-off between:

Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines

Social loafing occurs

Self-directed teams

Which of the following competencies would primarily assist team maintenance

Which of the following foundations of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability

Identify the task-related characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors

Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):

Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development

Groups are considered teams only when

Groupthink characteristics cause team members to be _____ their decisions

Production blocking and evaluation apprehension

The encoding-decoding process is generally more effective when both parties

Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model

Effective communication occurs when

Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in persuading people?

Active listeners improve their evaluating activities by

You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as

_____ are collaborative web spaces in which anyone in a group can write, edit, or remove material from the Web site

In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately

Which of the following fundamental drives is highly influenced by effective communication

Emotional contagion occurs when

Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness

The organizational grapevine is useful because it

How do men and women generally differ in their communication styles in organizational settings

High­cohesion teams perform poorer than low­cohesion teams when

Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams

Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double­check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?

A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team

Identify the task­related characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors

Teams with strong fault lines

Which of the following are described as virtual teams

The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it

A task force refers to any

Which of the following is true about calculus­based trust

Fellow team members often monitor performance more closely than a traditional supervisor. This is particularly true where the team's performance depends on

Self­directed teams

According to the communication process model

The organizational grapevine is useful because it

Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model

In organizational communication, "flaming" generally refers to

The capacity of a communication medium to transmit information is referred to as

Which of the following is an advantage of using e­mail communication

Which of the following communication channels has the lowest media richness

In the communication process, filtering occurs when

Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness

Which of the following is a key element in emotional contagion

In Alphatech Systems, an e­mail software screens incoming messages by organizing them into mailboxes and identifying junk mail. As a result, employees in this company can quickly identify the most important e­mail messages, and overlook the junk mail. This e­mail feature improves communication by

Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in persuading people

Which of the following represents the first three steps in the communication model in the correct order

1.	Teams are groups of two or more people who have equal influence over each other regarding the team's goals and means of achieving those goals.    True    False

2.	Team members are held together by their interdependence and need for collaboration to achieve common goals.    True    False

3.	Employees in a department are considered a team only when they directly interact and coordinate work activities with each other.    True    False

4.	Informal groups exist primarily to complete tasks for the organization that management doesn't know about.    True    False

5.	Task forces are temporary groups that typically investigate a particular problem and disband when the decision is made.    True    False

6.	Social identity theory provides one of the reasons why people join informal groups.    True    False

7.	Our desire for informal groups is mostly influenced by our drive to defend.    True    False

8.	Under stressful or dangerous conditions, people are more likely to stay together than disperse, even when the other people are strangers.    True    False

9.	Teams typically provide poorer customer service due to interpersonal conflicts amongst the members.    True    False

10.	Employees are more motivated in teams because they are accountable to fellow team members who also monitor their performance.    True    False

11.	Teams are better suited to simple work such as routine processing jobs than complex jobs.    True    False

12.	Process losses are the resources expended to develop and maintain an effective team.    True    False

13.	Brooks's law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later.    True    False

14.	Social loafing is most common in teams that are very small.    True    False

15.	Social loafing is more prevalent when the task is interesting.    True    False

16.	Teams are well suited when complex work can be divided into more specialized roles.    True    False

17.	Reciprocal interdependence is the highest level of task interdependence in organizations.    True    False

18.	Students experience sequential interdependence when they are lined up at the laser printers trying to get their assignments done just before a class deadline.    True    False

19.	An organizational team is highly interdependent, but the members have different goals. Here, the organization should try to reduce the level of interdependence.    True    False

20.	Smaller teams have more process loss than the larger teams.    True    False

21.	Cooperating, coordinating, and communicating are task related characteristics of effective team members.    True    False

22.	Comforting and conflict resolution mainly assist team maintenance.    True    False

23.	The members of a diverse team take longer to become a high-performing team.    True    False

24.	Homogeneous teams tend to have "fault lines" that may split the team along gender, professional, or other dimensions.    True    False

25.	Team processes in the team effectiveness model include team development, norms, cohesion, and trust.    True    False

26.	The norming stage of team development is marked by interpersonal conflict as team members compete for leadership and other positions on the team.    True    False

27.	Teams develop their first real sense of cohesion during the norming stage of team development.    True    False

28.	During the adjourning stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from relationships and instead focus mainly on completing the task.    True    False

29.	A role is a set of behaviors that people are expected to perform because they hold certain positions in a team and organization.    True    False

30.	Team members typically hold one or more formal roles in the team as well as roles that they informally fulfill at various times.    True    False

31.	Some team-building interventions clarify the team's performance goals and increase the team's motivation to accomplish these goals.    True    False

32.	Norms are the informal rules and shared expectations that groups establish to regulate the behavior of their members.    True    False

33.	Team members do not conform to team norms unless other team members apply reinforcement or punishment.    True    False

34.	Diversity among team members tends to undermine cohesion.    True    False

35.	To maximize cohesiveness, the team should be as small as possible without jeopardizing its ability to accomplish the task.    True    False

36.	Team cohesiveness decreases with increased interaction because there are more chances for conflicts to emerge.    True    False

37.	Teams tend to have more cohesion when entry to the team is restricted.    True    False

38.	When highly cohesive teams have norms that conflict with organizational goals, team performance is reduced.    True    False

39.	Trust refers to positive expectations one person has toward another person in low-risk situations.    True    False

40.	A low level of trust results when others affect you in situations where you are at risk but you believe they will not harm you.    True    False

41.	Calculus-based trust is based on the belief that the other party will deliver its promises because punishments would be applied if they fail to deliver those promises.    True    False

42.	Knowledge-based trust is confidence in one's own ability or knowledge.    True    False

43.	Knowledge-based trust offers a low level of potential and is more unstable because it is exploratory in its nature.    True    False

44.	Identification-based trust alone cannot sustain a team's relationship, because it relies on deterrence.    True    False

45.	Identification-based trust is potentially the strongest and most robust form of trust in work relationships.    True    False

46.	When people join teams, they typically have a very low level of trust in the other team members.    True    False

47.	The trust that new team members feel toward their teammates is fragile and easily weakened.    True    False

48.	Self-directed work teams plan, organize, and control activities with little or no direct involvement of supervisors.    True    False

49.	In most self-directed work teams, the supervisor assigns tasks that individual team members perform.    True    False

50.	Having plenty of structure is a success factor for virtual teams.    True    False

51.	Production blocking refers to a constraint in team decision making that discourages employees from mentioning their ideas in front of coworkers.    True    False

52.	Evaluation apprehension is most common in meetings attended by people with different levels of status or expertise.    True    False

53.	Groupthink concept includes the dysfunctional effects of conformity on team decision making.    True    False

54.	An important rule of brainstorming is that all the participants should evaluate and criticize the other team members' ideas.    True    False

55.	Electronic brainstorming significantly reduces the problem of production blocking.    True    False

56.	The nominal group technique is a variation of brainstorming.    True    False

57.	The nominal group technique tends to produce more and better ideas than do traditional interacting groups.    True    False

58.	The nominal group technique removes the problems of evaluation apprehension and production blocking.    True    False

59.	The nominal group technique is not applied in real-world settings.    True    False

60.

Groups are considered teams only when:    A.  they operate without any supervisor. B.  everyone in the department has the same set of skills. C.  employees directly interact with each other and coordinate work activities. D.  all employees are located in the same physical area. E.  most of the employees have the same level of motivation to accomplish goals.

61.	Informal groups:    A.  are initiated by the organization for special purposes. B.  exist primarily for the benefit of their members. C.  perform routine organizational goals. D.  always have a high level of interdependence. E.  perform uncommon tasks of the organization.

62.

A task force refers to any:    A.  informal group that has the same members as the permanent task-oriented group. B.  formal group whose members work permanently and most of their time in that team. C.  formal group whose members must be able to perform all tasks of the team. D.  temporary team that investigates a particular problem and typically disbands when the decision is made. E.  temporary team which has experts in an area to provide advice to organizations in making special decisions from time to time.

63.

Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia. This team, which included a service station dealer, a union truck driver and four or five marketing executives, disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is called a(n):    A.  skunkwork. B.  bootleg group. C.  informal group. D.  community of practice. E.  task force.

64.	Which of the following types of teams are best known for bootlegging to develop new products, services, or procedures?    A.  Skunkworks B.  Communities of practice C.  Task forces D.  Informal groups E.  Production teams

65.	_____ provides an explanation of why people belong to informal groups.    A.  Need to defend B.  Social identity theory C.  Confirmation bias D.  Social loafing E.  Cognitive dissonance

66.

According to social identity theory:    A.  teams are never as productive as individuals working alone. B.  the most effective teams have a large number of members. C.  the team development process occurs more rapidly for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous teams. D.  people define themselves by their group affiliations. E.  teams are less productive in performing complex tasks.

67.	The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people:    A.  join informal groups. B.  tend to ignore team norms whenever possible. C.  have difficulty feeling cohesive in teams. D.  engage in social loafing. E.  work better alone than in teams.

68.

Fellow team members often monitor performance more closely than a traditional supervisor. This is particularly true where the team's performance depends on:    A.  technological factors. B.  special efforts of members. C.  certain skills of members. D.  aptitudes of members. E.  worst performer in the group.

69.

In team dynamics, process losses are best described as:    A.  productivity losses that occur when individual members need to learn a new task. B.  information lost due to imperfect communication among team members. C.  resources expended toward team development and maintenance. D.  knowledge lost when a team member leaves the organization. E.  knowledge lost when tacit knowledge is converted to structural knowledge.

70.	Brooks's Law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later. This law is mainly referring to:    A.  lack of team cohesiveness. B.  existence of process losses. C.  excessive team norms. D.  unfriendly team environment. E.  formation of informal teams.

71.	Social loafing occurs:    A.  in smaller rather than larger teams. B.  when the task is boring. C.  in tasks with high interdependence. D.  when employees believe the team's objective is important. E.  among employees with collectivist rather than individualistic values.

72.

Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's performance is measurable are two ways to:    A.  minimize team cohesiveness. B.  add more roles to the team. C.  increase the risk of forming dysfunctional norms. D.  minimize social loafing. E.  minimize the process losses.

73.	The phenomenon where people exert less effort when working in groups than when working alone is referred to as _____.    A.  team cohesiveness B.  social identity C.  pooled interdependence D.  team conformity E.  social loafing

74.

High-performance teams depend on organizational leaders who provide support and strategic direction while team members focus on:    A.  determining the performance goals. B.  operational efficiency and flexibility. C.  organizational decision making. D.  evaluating the team's objectives. E.  forming the norms of the team.

75.	Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees working on assembly lines?    A.  Sequential interdependence B.  Total independence C.  Reciprocal interdependence D.  Pooled interdependence E.  Alternate interdependence

76.

Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best described as:    A.  total interdependence. B.  sequential interdependence. C.  reciprocal interdependence. D.  anticipatory interdependence. E.  pooled interdependence.

77.	Pooled interdependence is:    A.  essential for team effectiveness. B.  the same as reciprocal interdependence. C.  the weakest form of interdependence other than complete independence. D.  the best way to avoid social loafing. E.  is the lowest level of interdependence.

78.

Employees with _____, in which work output is exchanged back and forth among individuals, should be organized into teams to facilitate coordination in their interwoven relationship.    A.  pooled interdependence B.  reciprocal interdependence C.  counterproductive norms D.  high levels of social loafing E.  a very high level of heterogeneity

79.	Which of the following competencies would primarily assist team maintenance?    A.  Cooperating B.  Coordinating C.  Communicating D.  Comforting E.  Collaborating

80.	Identify the task-related characteristics in the ‘five C's' of effective member behaviors.    A.  Comforting and communicating B.  Cooperating and conflict resolving C.  Coordinating and communicating D.  Conflict resolving and coordinating E.  Comforting and cooperating

81.	"Fault lines" are more likely to occur when teams:    A.  have very few members. B.  are involved in sequential interdependence. C.  engage in participative management. D.  are highly interdependent. E.  are diverse.

82.

Teams with strong fault lines:    A.  experience more dysfunctional conflict within the team. B.  proceed more quickly through the team development process. C.  have team members with similar demographic and professional backgrounds. D.  have very few members in the team. E.  have better interpersonal relations.

83.

A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team:    A.  when designing and launching a new product or service. B.  on tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation. C.  in situations where the team must reach the performing stage of team development quickly. D.  in most organizational activities as they will have fewer conflicts. E.  if the team is working on a project that involves routine tasks.

84.

Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development?    A.  Members learn about each other and evaluate the benefits and costs of continued membership. B.  Members shift their attention away from task orientation to a socio-emotional focus as they realize their relationship is coming to an end. C.  Members learn to coordinate their actions and become more task-oriented. D.  Members develop their first real sense of cohesion and, through disclosure and feedback, make an effort to understand and accept each other. E.  Members try to establish norms of appropriate behavior and performance standards.

85.	During the _____ stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from task orientation to a relationship focus.    A.  forming B.  storming C.  norming D.  adjourning E.  performing

86.

A role is a set of behaviors that people are expected to perform because:    A.  they need to present a certain image in their organization. B.  they hold certain positions in a team and organization. C.  of certain aptitudes and tastes that they possess. D.  of the nature and type of the team environment. E.  of the interpersonal conflicts in the team.

87.

Which of the following is a major problem associated with team building activities?    A.  They cannot be used to clarify the team's performance goals. B.  They do not focus on improving relations among team members. C.  Team building consists of informal activities rather than formal activities. D.  Team building attempts slow down the team development process. E.  They are used as general solutions rather than specific solutions.

88.

How do norms affect the behavior of team members?    A.  They encourage members to try new behaviors not previously sanctioned by the team. B.  They encourage the members to think out of the box and provide innovative solutions. C.  They help the team regulate and guide the behaviors of its members. D.  They help the team move from the forming to storming stages of team development. E.  They enable team members to have complete autonomy in their functioning.

89.

If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained in a team, the best strategy is probably to:    A.  tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to tolerate the dysfunctional norm. B.  disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms. C.  supplement the existing group with one or two people having more favorable norms. D.  introduce rewards that support the dysfunctional norm. E.  provide direct reinforcement and punishment to the employees.

90.	Team cohesiveness tends to be higher when:    A.  the team is large and established. B.  when entry into the team is difficult. C.  when the team has distinct fault lines. D.  when members have limited interaction. E.  external competition is limited.

91.

When compared to people in low-cohesion teams, members of high-cohesion teams:    A.  are less motivated to maintain their membership. B.  resolve conflicts swiftly and effectively. C.  are less sensitive to each other's needs. D.  are less likely to share information with each other. E.  have external locus of control.

92.

High-cohesion teams perform poorer than low-cohesion teams when:    A.  the team faces external competition. B.  the team has more than fifteen members. C.  the team leader has less knowledge and skills than the team members. D.  team norms undermine the organization's performance. E.  teams have tight deadlines.

93.	Calculus, knowledge, and identification are the three:    A.  stages of team development. B.  ways to improve team cohesiveness. C.  foundations of trust in teams. D.  types of psychological contract. E.  stages of conflict among team members.

94.

Which of the following is true about calculus-based trust?    A.  It is the lowest potential trust in organizations. B.  It can sustain a team's relationship by itself. C.  It is mainly based on the other party's predictability. D.  It occurs when one party thinks, feels, and responds like the other party. E.  It is based on the knowledge of the other member's behavior.

95.	Which of the following foundations of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability?    A.  Calculus-based B.  Identification-based C.  Knowledge-based D.  Relational E.  Transactional

96.

Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double-check some account entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable. What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?    A.  Calculus-based B.  Identification-based C.  Knowledge-based D.  Co-operative E.  Collaborative

97.

Self-directed teams:    A.  are informal groups that exist in an organization. B.  usually exist as communities of practice. C.  consist of a group of employees who are subject to methodical supervision. D.  have substantial autonomy over the execution of a complete task. E.  have reduced member-interdependence compared to other teams.

98.	Which of the following allow employees to collectively plan, organize, and control work activities with little or no direct involvement of a higher-status supervisor?    A.  Gainsharing teams B.  Production teams C.  Virtual teams D.  Advisory teams E.  Self-directed teams

99.

Which of the following are described as virtual teams?    A.  Groups of employees who are almost (virtually) identical to each other in skills and values. B.  Cross-functional groups of employees that operate across space, time, and organizational boundaries. C.  Formal work teams in which most members do not feel that they are really part of the team. D.  Informal groups that meet only in cyberspace. E.  Groups of employees from different departments who are located near each other.

100.	Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams?    A.  Size and heterogeneity B.  Lack of co-location and dependence on information technology C.  Joint optimization and primary work unit D.  Norms and trust E.  Size and homogeneity of the team

101.	Production blocking and evaluation apprehension:    A.  improve the creative process in teams. B.  help teams to avoid groupthink. C.  are two ways to overcome group polarization in a team. D.  reduce the discipline of a team in group meetings. E.  hinder organizational decision making in teams.

102.

Which of the following statements about evaluation apprehension in team settings is true?    A.  Evaluation apprehension increases with the individual's motivation to share his or her ideas. B.  Evaluation apprehension is more likely to occur when team members formally evaluate each others' performance throughout the year. C.  Evaluation apprehension motivates team members to generate creative solutions, no matter how silly they may sound. D.  Evaluation apprehension tends to affect the discipline and functioning of team meetings. E.  Evaluation apprehension can be extremely productive if the leader is skillful and charismatic.

103.	Groupthink characteristics cause team members to be _____ their decisions.    A.  uncomfortable with B.  confused about C.  hesitant and doubtful about D.  more aware of the characteristics of E.  highly confident in

104.

The main advantage of constructive conflict is that it:    A.  minimizes dysfunctional conflict among team members. B.  increases the level of group polarization. C.  removes production blocking and groupthink. D.  encourages team members to reexamine the assumptions and logic of their preferences in the decision. E.  helps the team to make decisions more quickly.

105.	Brainstorming requires team members to:    A.  openly criticize each other's ideas. B.  avoid presenting ideas that seem silly. C.  provide as many ideas as possible. D.  present only feasible ideas in discussions. E.  use formal norms of discussion.

106.	In which decision-making structure do participants typically meet, but only interact with each other for part of the meeting?    A.  Delphi method B.  Nominal group technique C.  Brainstorming D.  Constructive conflict E.  Electronic brainstorming

1.	Communication refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.    True    False

2.	Employee well-being cannot benefit from the communication experience itself though it could assist the process of employee well-being.    True    False

3.	People who experience social isolation are more susceptible to physical and mental illnesses.    True    False

4.	One reason that people communicate with each other is to fulfill their drive to bond.    True    False

5.	In the communication process model, encoding the message refers to selecting the appropriate medium and sending your ideas through that medium.    True    False

6.	According to the communication process model, communication begins with forming the message, then encoding it.    True    False

7.	Intended feedback is encoded, transmitted, received, and decoded from the receiver to the sender of the original message.    True    False

8.	The effectiveness of the encoding-decoding process is independent of the sender's and the receiver's proficiency with the communication channel.    True    False

9.	Codebooks are symbols used to convey message content, whereas mental models are knowledge structures of the communication topic setting.    True    False

10.	When sender and receiver have shared mental models, more communication is necessary to clarify meaning about that context.    True    False

11.	One consequence of introducing e-mail is that it tends to decrease the amount of communication across the organization.    True    False

12.	The introduction of e-mail in organizations reduces some face-to-face and telephone communication and the flow of information to higher levels in the organization.    True    False

13.	E-mail is a very good medium for communicating emotions.    True    False

14.	Flaming refers to the capacity of an organization to transmit information more quickly through computer networks than through traditional paper media.    True    False

15.	E-mail helps organizations to significantly reduce the problem of information overload.    True    False

16.	Most information is communicated verbally rather than nonverbally in quiet settings.    True    False

17.	Mimicking another person's behavior and emotions is a part of emotional contagion.    True    False

18.	Emotional contagion provides continuous feedback and communicates that the listener does not empathize with the sender.    True    False

19.	Emotional contagion fulfills our drive to bond with others.    True    False

20.	Individual preference for specific communication channels is a factor contributing to social acceptance.    True    False

21.	Media richness refers to the ratio of the cost of using a medium relative to its frequency of use in the organization.    True    False

22.	According to media richness theory, lean media are better than rich media when the communication situation is nonroutine and ambiguous.    True    False

23.	Instant messaging is a richer channel of communication than video conferencing.    True    False

24.	A communication channel with high media richness should be used in routine situations where the sender and receiver have common understanding and expectations.    True    False

25.	Most information technologies require less social etiquette and attention, so employees can easily multi-communicate.    True    False

26.	People experienced with a particular communication medium can "push" the amount of media richness normally possible through that information channel.    True    False

27.	Rich media have less social distractions compared to lean media.    True    False

28.	People are persuaded more under conditions of low social presence than high social presence.    True    False

29.	Language differences among people can produce communication noise.    True    False

30.	Ambiguous language is sometimes necessary to describe situations or concepts that are ill-defined or lack agreement between sender and receiver.    True    False

31.	Jargon improves communication efficiency when both the sender and receiver understand this specialized language.    True    False

32.	Information overload occurs when an individual's information-processing capacity exceeds the job's information load.    True    False

33.	Buffering occurs when we decide to overlook messages, such as using software rules to redirect e-mail from distribution lists to folders we never look at.    True    False

34.	Talking while someone is speaking to you is interpreted by the Japanese as the person's interest and involvement in the conversation.    True    False

35.	Maintaining eye contact to show interest in someone's conversation is one of the few forms of nonverbal communication that transmits common meaning across all cultures.    True    False

36.	Research has found that women are generally more sensitive than are men to nonverbal communication.    True    False

37.	The three components of listening are encoding, decoding and interpreting.    True    False

38.	Active listeners constantly cycle through the three components of listening during a conversation and engage in various activities to improve these processes.    True    False

39.	The sensing stage of active listening includes empathizing and organizing information.    True    False

40.	The responding stage of active listening includes showing interest and clarifying the message.    True    False

41.	Open space arrangements in workstations increase communication and potentially decrease noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.    True    False

42.	Management by walking around occurs when senior executives get out of their offices and communicate face-to-face with employees.    True    False

43.	Management by walking around minimizes the problem of filtering in the communication process.    True    False

44.	Organizational grapevine distorts information by deleting fine details and exaggerating key points of stories.    True    False

45.	Grapevine is the main conduit through which organizational stories and other symbols of the organization's culture are communicated.    True    False

46.	The grapevine is an important social process that fulfills the employees' drive to bond.    True    False

47.	The best way to manage organizational grapevine is to ignore the information it communicates.    True    False

48.

Effective communication occurs when:    A.  information is sent through informal rather than formal channels. B.  information is collected from various sources but sent to a limited audience. C.  the sender convinces the receiver to accept the information sent. D.  information is transmitted and understood between two or more people. E.  the sender transmits information that is received by someone other than the intended receiver.

49.	_____ refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.    A.  Communication B.  Jargon C.  Flaming D.  Grapevine E.  MBWA

50.	Which of the following fundamental drives is highly influenced by effective communication?    A.  Drive to succeed B.  Drive to defend C.  Drive to bond D.  Drive to acquire E.  Drive to achieve

51.	Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model?    A.  Form message B.  Encode message C.  Decode message D.  Transmit message E.  Form feedback

52.

Which of the following represents the first three steps in the communication model in the correct order?    A.  Decode message, encode message, and provide feedback B.  Form message, transmit message, and decode message C.  Encode message, transmit message, and receive message D.  Form message, transmit message, and receive message E.  Form message, encode message, and transmit message

53.

Which of the following happens immediately after the receiver receives the encoded message in the communication process model?    A.  The sender receives confirmation that the message has been understood B.  The receiver confirms with the sender that the message sent was intended to be a message C.  The receiver decodes the received message D.  The receiver encodes the message E.  The receiver forms a direct feedback in response to the received message

54.

In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately:    A.  before the sender forms the message. B.  after the receiver receives the message. C.  after the sender forms feedback of the original message. D.  after the receiver transmits the message. E.  before the receiver receives the message.

55.

According to the communication process model:    A.  information flows through channels between the sender and receiver. B.  the sender and receiver are at different levels and communicate only when the levels match. C.  communication is a free-flowing conduit. D.  information transmission is minimal in a formal communicative process. E.  the sender is the dominant and more important partner.

56.

What effect does "noise" have in the communication model?    A.  It distorts and obscures the sender's intended message. B.  It prevents the sender from forming a message. C.  It helps the sender to select a more appropriate medium to transmit the message. D.  It helps the receiver to decode the message more carefully. E.  The concept of "noise" is not significant in the communication model.

57.

The encoding-decoding process is generally more effective when both parties:    A.  have a diverse set of skills and capabilities. B.  differ in their level of expertise and knowledge. C.  have uncommon knowledge and expertise in the topic of discussion. D.  are skilled in using the selected communication channel. E.  have formed perceptions and varying beliefs about interpersonal communication.

58.

Which of the following tends to be the preferred medium for coordinating work, increases communication with people further up the hierarchy, and is an increasing source of information overload?    A.  Electronic company magazines B.  Annual performance reviews with supervisors C.  Intranet web sites D.  E-mail E.  The corporate grapevine

59.

Which of the following is an advantage of using e-mail communication?    A.  It reduces the problem of information overload. B.  It reduces the frequency of flaming. C.  It is easier to interpret emotional meaning in e-mail messages as they are less formal. D.  It increases the politeness and respect of communication. E.  It significantly alters the flow of information within groups.

60.	Which of the following communication media tends to be the best for transmitting emotions?    A.  Newsletters B.  E-mail messages C.  Telephone conversations D.  Face-to-face meetings E.  Written messages

61.

In organizational communication, "flaming" generally refers to:    A.  telling an employee in front of other people that he or she is fired. B.  ranting and raving in front of a large audience. C.  an emotionally charged e-mail message, usually one that communicates the sender's anger. D.  using any signal with the hands that conveys an obscene meaning to the receiver. E.  interrupting the speaker before he or she has finished talking.

62.	Which of the following conditions would necessitate the use of non-verbal communication instead of verbal communication?    A.  Low physical distance B.  Need for immediate feedback C.  Personal nature of communication D.  Familiarity with the listener E.  Increased noise

63.

Emotional contagion occurs when:    A.  we share the emotions of other people. B.  we are required to show or hide our emotions, based on rules prescribed by the job. C.  two or more people experience different emotions even though they are observing the same object. D.  the communication medium has different meaning for the receiver and the sender. E.  two or more people experience the same emotions even though they are observing different objects.

64.	Which of the following is a key element in emotional contagion?    A.  Passive listening B.  Hidden motive C.  Persuasion D.  Tacit knowledge E.  Flaming

65.

What effect does emotional contagion have on the communication process?    A.  It distorts the communication process and causes dissatisfaction to all the parties involved. B.  It provides feedback to the sender that the receiver understands and empathizes with the message. C.  It reduces the level of actual communication among colleagues. D.  It makes it more difficult for the receiver to receive emotional meaning of the sender's experience. E.  It forms a strong communication barrier between the sender and the receiver.

66.

Listeners often engage in an automatic process of "catching" or sharing another person's emotions by mimicking that person's facial expressions and other nonverbal behavior. Which of the following drives causes this effect?    A.  Drive to defend B.  Drive to bond C.  Drive to achieve D.  Drive to learn E.  Drive to protect

67.	Which of the following is a factor in social acceptance?    A.  The symbolic meaning of the chosen channel B.  The media richness of the selected channel C.  The bandwidth of the channel D.  The diplomatic acceptance of the message E.  The content and accuracy of the message

68.	The capacity of a communication medium to transmit information is referred to as:    A.  media richness. B.  information overload. C.  channel frequency. D.  channel diversity. E.  communication frequency.

69.

Several employees in a newly formed group must work together to develop a new product. No one in this group has worked with anyone else in this group before and the development of this product has not been attempted previously. According to the media richness model, which of the following communication channels is most appropriate in this situation?    A.  Written documents B.  E-mail C.  Face-to-face meetings D.  Bulletin boards E.  Financial statements

70.	Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness?    A.  Newsletter B.  E-mail C.  Telephone call D.  Video conference E.  Instant messaging

71.	Which of the following communication channels has the lowest media richness?    A.  Newsletter B.  E-mail C.  Telephone call D.  Video conference E.  Instant messaging

72.

Safety representatives in each of the six plants of a manufacturing company need to communicate to each other every week the number and type of health and safety incidents in their plant. Each representative has a safety reporting document where he or she notes the type and number of infractions during the previous week. These incidents are well known to other representatives, so there are rarely any surprises. This weekly communication calls for:    A.  an active corporate grapevine. B.  high emotional contagion in communication. C.  the use of nonverbal communication. D.  increased number of face-to-face meetings. E.  lean media.

73.

Employees can expand the data-carrying capacity of lean media channel if they:    A.  avoid emotional contagion. B.  are highly proficient with that communication channel. C.  are unfamiliar with the receiver of the information. D.  avoid using jargon and short-hand symbols in the communication. E.  are new to using that communication medium.

74.

Which of the following communication channels is most effective when the sender wants to persuade the receiver?    A.  A formal memorandum sent to the receiver B.  An informal speech to a large audience C.  A personalized letter to the receiver D.  A personal face-to-face meeting with the receiver E.  An informal memorandum issued to the receiver

75.

Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in persuading people?    A.  It can make better use of the social perceptions of individuals. B.  It can be used as a medium for richer communication. C.  It is better in presenting technical details. D.  It can be used to obtain high-quality immediate feedback. E.  It sends emotional and logical messages to receivers.

76.

Language differences can produce communication noise even when people speak the same language. This occurs because of the:    A.  skill differences among people. B.  lack of necessary aptitudes. C.  richness of the communication channel. D.  reduced channel bandwidth. E.  cultural differences among people.

77.	When a sender and receiver, belonging to the same group, want to transmit technical information more efficiently, they should use:    A.  jargon that they both understand. B.  information filtering. C.  mediators in communication. D.  nonverbal communication. E.  formal written communication.

78.

In the communication process, filtering occurs when:    A.  the sender carefully selects words that the receiver is most likely to understand correctly. B.  the receiver removes noise from the communication process so that the sender's message is more accurately understood. C.  people communicate mainly positive information about themselves by screening out negative information. D.  an organization is able to prevent grapevine communication by sending the information more quickly through newsletters and other formal communication channels. E.  the receiver avoids receiving messages from a sender, such as by avoiding the person or deliberately not reading e-mail messages.

79.

Senior executives at a large tire company learned that a line of tires had a tendency to fall apart in very warm weather. This resulted in several vehicle accidents in the Middle East and South America. However, the executives did not hear about these problems until several weeks after the lower-level managers learnt about the same. Although the senior executives encourage staff to openly communicate all information, the lower-level staff held back the information for fear that they might lose their jobs. Which communication concept best describes this communication situation?    A.  Media richness B.  Persuasive communication C.  Filtering D.  Flaming E.  Information overload

80.	Buffering, summarizing, and omitting are ways to:    A.  reduce information overload. B.  avoid organizational risk. C.  avoid the risk of flaming. D.  improve communication between men and women. E.  increase media richness.

81.

In Alphatech Systems, an e-mail software screens incoming messages by organizing them into mailboxes and identifying junk mail. As a result, employees in this company can quickly identify the most important e-mail messages, and overlook the junk mail. This e-mail feature improves communication by:    A.  increasing media richness. B.  reducing information load. C.  minimizing emotional contagion. D.  reducing the use of jargon. E.  increasing social acceptance of mails.

82.

You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as:    A.  a symbol of interpersonal harmony. B.  an indication that the Japanese are thoughtfully contemplating what you have just said in your presentation. C.  an agreement to the proposal made by you. D.  a respect for your presentation. E.  a lack of communication.

83.

How do men and women generally differ in their communication styles in organizational settings?    A.  Men are more likely than women to communicate to strengthen relationships. B.  Women are more likely than men to give advice quickly and frequently. C.  Women are usually more sensitive than men to the listener's nonverbal cues. D.  Men tend to engage less in report talk than women. E.  Men apologize more often in their conversations and interactions than women.

84.	The three main components of active listening, in order, are:    A.  sensing, evaluating, and responding. B.  encoding, decoding, and transmitting. C.  inferring, deferring, and referring. D.  summarizing, encoding, and responding. E.  buffering, summarizing, and omitting.

85.	Active listeners improve their sensing activities by:    A.  forming an opinion early in the process. B.  postponing evaluation of the message. C.  clarifying the message during presentation. D.  estimating the learning often. E.  maintaining a casual posture when listening.

86.	Active listeners improve their evaluating activities by:    A.  organizing the information provided in the speech. B.  forming an opinion before presentation. C.  clarifying the message. D.  interrupting when they disagree with the speaker. E.  providing some criticism of all the ideas presented.

87.	Which of the following active listening processes includes showing interest and clarifying the message of the speaker?    A.  Evaluating B.  Responding C.  Persuading D.  Recording E.  Sensing

88.	Which of the following is specifically identified as a strategy to improve communication across the organizational hierarchy, and not just at a micro-level?    A.  Filtering B.  Buffering C.  Encouraging an active grapevine D.  Open workspace design E.  Use of jargon

89.

Research suggests that effective workspace design mainly balances the trade-off between:    A.  social interaction and emotional contagion. B.  verbal and nonverbal communication. C.  employee privacy and social interaction. D.  information overload and information underload. E.  buffering and information overload.

90.	_____ are collaborative web spaces in which anyone in a group can write, edit, or remove material from the Web site.    A.  Blogs B.  Podcasts C.  Wikis D.  Intranets E.  Local area networks

91.

Management by walking around refers to:    A.  the label used to describe the process of new executives getting familiar with their new office design and layout. B.  a communication process that should be used only when executives need to explain corporate decisions to the lower-level employees. C.  a practice in which executives get out of their offices and learn from others in the organization through face-to-face dialogue. D.  an old strategy that results in an ineffective process for upward communication. E.  the label used to describe new executives who experiment in management.

92.

Which of the following is true about the organizational grapevine?    A.  The grapevine presents a true picture of reality by providing fine details to substantiate the content. B.  The grapevine typically works by sending information downward rather than upward through the organizational hierarchy. C.  The grapevine is usually founded on organizational charts or job descriptions rather than social relationships. D.  The grapevine is a structured and formal network for transmitting organizational information. E.  The typical pattern of a grapevine is a cluster chain, whereby a few people actively transmit rumors to many others.

93.

The organizational grapevine is useful because it:    A.  is an effective way for management to inform employees about future organizational changes. B.  provides detailed information that more formal communication channels tend to ignore. C.  reduces information overload. D.  bonds employees together and fulfills their need for interaction. E.  allows organizations to hide important information from employees.

94.

Which of the following should corporate leaders do with the organizational grapevine?    A.  Try to use the grapevine as a channel of communication from executives to employees as much as possible because of its high speed and low cost B.  Use the grapevine as a signal of employee anxiety and view it as a valid competitor to the company's formal communication system C.  Use the grapevine when the communication requires high media richness, but otherwise use meetings when communicating with employees D.  Make every effort to destroy the grapevine, including firing employees who actively support it E.  Ignore grapevines as providing more attention to it would increase the speed of grapevine communication