Liberty University BUSI 342 exam 2 test solutions
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How many versions: six versions
The performance-reward linkage described
in the expectancy theory of motivation refers to employees’ beliefs that
working harder will lead to better performance.
According to Maslow’s need theory, an
employee strives to satisfy his or her higher order needs first.
Churn tends to have a negative impact on
the remaining employees in an organization.
Psychological contracts between
employers and employees are similar across cultures.
Employee productivity is a tangible
aspect of psychological contracts
One of the determinants of employees’
willingness to exert effort is the degree to which they value the rewards
offered by an organization.
Older employees tend to have lower job satisfaction
than younger employees
According to Maslow’s need theory, motivation
is a goal-directed drive, and it seldom occurs in a void.
To increase employee satisfaction, the
performance management systems and performance appraisal processes in
organizations must be designed so they are linked to compensation increases.
The reasons key people choose to stay
with an employer are always the opposite of those that compel others to quit
Recruiting is essentially an
administrative function rather than a part of strategic HR planning
Internet recruiting generates high
numbers of applicants and increases work for HR staff far beyond traditional
recruiting methods
The group of applicants that an
organization has available to it when using a particular recruiting approach,
such as Internet job boards, is the applicant population
Resume mining allows HR staff to use
software to extract the most promising resumes from a large database
Intensive recruiting may take the form
of a vigorous recruiting campaign aimed at hiring a given number of employees.
Blogging-creates enough possible legal
concerns that regulations may be implemented by the U.S. Federal Trade
Commission.
Solange Allure Inc., a cosmetics
company, is moving its operations from Bogalusa, Louisiana, to Seattle,
Washington. Solange Allure will be changing its occupational labor market.
The term “applicant population” refers
to all individuals looking for a job in a particular geographic area.
Utilizing current employee referrals of
family members and friends is not ethical because it increases the risk of
committing nepotism
Recruiting former employees is a way of avoiding
“inbreeding” while still using an internal recruiting source.
It is legal for an employer to check a
person’s Social Security number, motor vehicle records, and military records
when performing a background check on an applicant.
Ernest is applying for a carpentry
apprenticeship program. He must take a test involving mathematical calculations
including working with fractions and geometry. This is illegal because
carpentry is a manual labor job and these tests are cognitive and not
job-related.
Listening responses such as mirroring
and echoing may backfire for managers doing job interviews because these
responses give feedback to the applicant.
Since “soft skills” are difficult to
test for, and interviewing for these skills often puts women candidates at a
disadvantage, the EEOC’s guidelines require that applicants be selected for
quantifiable or measurable “hard skills” only
The Employee Polygraph Protection Act
prohibits employers, including federal, state, and local government agencies,
from using polygraphs for preemployment screening purposes.
The ADA prohibits the use of
preemployment medical exams, except for drug tests, until a job has been
conditionally offered.
Negligent hiring occurs when an employer
becomes aware that an employee may be unfit for employment but continues to
employ the person, and the person injures someone on the job.
Poor adaptation of an expatriate’s
spouse and/or family to the overseas location is a major factor in the failure
of expatriate assignments.
In general, the more structured a type
of selection interview, the more likely it is to be statistically valid.
If employers do not use E-Verify to
determine if an applicant is legally permitted to work in the U.S., the employer
is considered to be in technical violation of federal law and can be audited by
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement
Training plans allow organizations to
identify what is needed for employee performance before training begins.
In the context of active practice,
spaced practice occurs when a person performs all the practice at once.
Combining pre-/post-measure with a
control group is an effective training evaluation design.
Assessing organizational training needs
is the execution phase of a training plan
On-the-job training can amount to no training
if the trainers simply allow the trainees to learn the job on their own
For the employer, the advantages of
cross training are flexibility and development
Carlene, a customer executive, arrives
at the training facility of the company full of enthusiasm because she is
really excited about learning how to cope with difficult customers. She has
encountered a number of intransigent customers and is eager to see what “tricks”
the trainers can show her. This shows that Carlene has the motivation to learn.
“Soft”
skills are critical in many instances in a business environment and can be
taught
A gap analysis identifies the difference
between what an individual employee knows and what the employee should know in
order to perform the job satisfactorily
The most common approach for making
individual analysis is to use performance appraisal data.
1. _____ is a goal-directed drive, and is
defined as the desire within a person causing that person to act.
|
a.
|
Attention
|
|
b.
|
Motivation
|
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c.
|
Calibre
|
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d.
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Aptitude
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2. Which of the following theorists developed
the need theory?
|
a.
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Frederick
Herzberg
|
|
b.
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Lyman Porter
|
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c.
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Abraham Maslow
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d.
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Carl Jung
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3. According to Maslow’s need theory, which of
the following needs will a person strive to fulfill first?
|
a.
|
Physiological
needs
|
|
b.
|
Safety and
security needs
|
|
c.
|
Actualization
needs
|
|
d.
|
Belonging and
love needs
|
4. According to Maslow’s need theory, the
highest human need is the need for:
|
a.
|
self-esteem.
|
|
b.
|
safety.
|
|
c.
|
self-actualization.
|
|
d.
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love.
|
5. At Lumina Corporation, benefits for employees
include an employer-sponsored insurance coverage. The medical expenses of
employees are covered entirely by the company in case of any accidents. In this
case, which of the following needs in Maslow’s hierarchy is the management in
Lumina Corporation trying to fulfill?
|
a.
|
Physiological
needs
|
|
b.
|
Safety and
security needs
|
|
c.
|
Actualization
needs
|
|
d.
|
Belonging and
love needs
|
6. According to Maslow, once a person has
fulfilled his or her safety needs, he would immediately proceed to fulfill
his:
|
a.
|
physiological
needs.
|
|
b.
|
belonging needs.
|
|
c.
|
actualization
needs.
|
|
d.
|
esteem needs.
|
7. Frederick Herzberg proposed the:
|
a.
|
need theory.
|
|
b.
|
expectancy
theory.
|
|
c.
|
equity theory.
|
|
d.
|
motivation/hygiene
theory.
|
8. Which of the following is considered to be a
hygiene factor by the motivator/hygiene theory?
|
a.
|
Achievement
|
|
b.
|
Recognition
|
|
c.
|
Responsibility
|
|
d.
|
Salary
|
9. Which of the following is considered to be a
motivator by the motivator/hygiene theory?
|
a.
|
Interpersonal
relationships
|
|
b.
|
Recognition
|
|
c.
|
Working
conditions
|
|
d.
|
Supervision
|
10. Which of the following is considered to be a
motivator by the motivator/hygiene theory?
|
a.
|
Company policy
|
|
b.
|
Administration
|
|
c.
|
Advancement
|
|
d.
|
Salary
|
11. Which of the following needs of employees do
motivators, described by the two-factor theory, primarily try to fulfill?
|
a.
|
Physiological
needs
|
|
b.
|
Belonging needs
|
|
c.
|
Safety needs
|
|
d.
|
Esteem needs
|
12. According to Herzberg’s motivation/hygiene
theory _____ is a hygiene factor.
|
a.
|
Advancement
|
|
b.
|
Recognition
|
|
c.
|
Responsibility
|
|
d.
|
Working condition
|
13. _____ is defined as the perceived fairness of
what a person does compared with what the person receives.
|
a.
|
Equity
|
|
b.
|
Motivation
|
|
c.
|
Need
|
|
d.
|
Expectation
|
14. Which of the following is considered to be an
input by the equity theory?
|
a.
|
Educational
level
|
|
b.
|
Pay
|
|
c.
|
Awards
|
|
d.
|
Recognition
|
15. Which of the following is considered to be an
outcome by the equity theory?
|
a.
|
Age
|
|
b.
|
Prestige
|
|
c.
|
Experience
|
|
d.
|
Productivity
|
16. A(n) _____ refers to the unwritten
expectations that both employees and employers have about the nature of their
work relationships.
|
a.
|
employment
contract
|
|
b.
|
psychological
contract
|
|
c.
|
non-compete
agreement
|
|
d.
|
effort-performance
linkage
|
17. Which of the following is an intangible item
in a psychological contract?
|
a.
|
Wages
|
|
b.
|
Benefits
|
|
c.
|
Attendance
|
|
d.
|
Fair treatment
|
18. Which of the following is an intangible item
in a psychological contract?
|
a.
|
Salary
|
|
b.
|
Benefits
|
|
c.
|
Attendance
|
|
d.
|
Loyalty
|
19. Which of the following is a tangible item in
a psychological contract?
|
a.
|
Loyalty
|
|
b.
|
Nondiscriminatory
treatment
|
|
c.
|
Job security
|
|
d.
|
Wages
|
20. Which of the following is used by employers
to address the issue of job satisfaction among employees?
|
a.
|
The halo affect
|
|
b.
|
The Hawthorne
effect
|
|
c.
|
A whistle-blower
survey
|
|
d.
|
An attitude
survey
|
21. Which of the following is a direct cost of
absenteeism?
|
a.
|
Replacement for
absent worker
|
|
b.
|
Lower
productivity
|
|
c.
|
Replacement
training
|
|
d.
|
Slower work pace
|
22. In which of the following cases is an employer
applying the principles of positive reinforcement to curb absenteeism.
|
a.
|
He is conducting
a company-wide session on the leave policy of the company.
|
|
b.
|
He is issuing a
written warning to an employee for taking a lot of uninformed leaves of absence.
|
|
c.
|
He is giving
cash to employees for meeting attendance standards.
|
|
d.
|
He is offering
supportive guidance and personal counseling for employees who do not meet the
attendance standards of the company.
|
23. CLASS, a newly-opened real estate agency, has
twenty employees on its payroll. In June 2012, Jane and Selin, each took three
days of leave of absence from work. What was the absenteeism rate of the
company in June 2012?
24. Luminia Inc. has about five absences per 100 employees
each day. Every day, it loses about 13% of its time due to absenteeism. The
average percent of time lost per absent employee in the company is 34% every
month. In this case, the inactivity rate of the company is _____.
|
a.
|
5%
|
|
b.
|
13%
|
|
c.
|
34%
|
|
d.
|
20%
|
25. The average time lost per absent employee
during a specified period of time is known as the:
|
a.
|
inactivity rate.
|
|
b.
|
incidence rate.
|
|
c.
|
severity rate.
|
|
d.
|
compensation
rate.
|
26. The number of absences per 100 employees each
day is known as the:
|
a.
|
inactivity rate.
|
|
b.
|
incidence rate.
|
|
c.
|
severity rate.
|
|
d.
|
compensation
rate.
|
27. Which of the following statements is true
about turnover?
|
a.
|
It is illegal
for an employer to continue to hire new employees while laying off other
employees.
|
|
b.
|
When key
individuals leave the firm, the turnover is often functional because they no
longer act as a brake on the introduction of new technology and new work
processes.
|
|
c.
|
The turnover of
poor performers is considered functional.
|
|
d.
|
Organizations
have little control over involuntary turnover.
|
28. Which of the following cases exemplifies
involuntary turnover?
|
a.
|
Jane worked hard
on a project for four months, but when the project got shelved, she felt
demotivated and quit the company.
|
|
b.
|
Lisa loved her
job, but quit when she noticed that a lot of employees were being laid off.
|
|
c.
|
Mary announced
her retirement a day after her 40th birthday.
|
|
d.
|
Pauline was
asked to leave the company due to poor performance on a project that incurred
huge losses for her firm.
|
29. Which of the following exemplifies voluntary
turnover?
|
a.
|
Jake a student
intern at CL Corp. leaves the organization after his internship period is
over.
|
|
b.
|
Paul, an
employee of NML Corp. for five years, was fired owing to noncompliance with
company policies.
|
|
c.
|
Karen is asked
to resign by her manager due to her deteriorating performance.
|
|
d.
|
Gerald gets
passed over for promotion twice despite being good at his job, and hence he
decides to leave the organization.
|
30. A software firm plans to reduce the number of
talented designers in its workforce who leave their jobs. In this case, the
firm seeks to focus on _____ turnover among the designers.
|
a.
|
uncontrollable
|
|
b.
|
positive
|
|
c.
|
functional
|
|
d.
|
voluntary
|
31. Mark was terminated by his company because of
his poor client relations skills that resulted in a major client leaving the
firm for a competitor. This is an example of:
|
a.
|
involuntary
turnover.
|
|
b.
|
positive
turnover.
|
|
c.
|
uncontrollable
turnover.
|
|
d.
|
dysfunctional
turnover.
|
32. Alice, an efficient waitress at a
moderately-priced family restaurant, consistently gets the lowest tips from
customers. She announces that she is quitting to take another job at a
newly-opened casino. This best exemplifies a(n) _____ turnover.
|
a.
|
functional
|
|
b.
|
controllable
|
|
c.
|
involuntary
|
|
d.
|
positive
|
33. Churn refers to the practice of hiring:
|
a.
|
new employees
while laying off others.
|
|
b.
|
only those
employees who have more than five years of prior experience in a similar
industry.
|
|
c.
|
through realistic
job previews.
|
|
d.
|
employees on a
short-term contract basis.
|
34. WesternBioLabs Inc. is in the process of
laying off 10% of its shipping and receiving employees. At the same time, it is
hiring new hourly staff for night shifts. Which of the following terms best
describes this process?
|
a.
|
Churn
|
|
b.
|
Licensing
|
|
c.
|
Takeover
|
|
d.
|
Franchising
|
35. 50 employees of Glow Corp. quit the company
in 2012. 35 of them quit on their own, while the rest were asked to leave by
the company due to poor performance on the job and high absenteeism. The total
number of employees in the corporation was 270 in January, 2012. The mid-year
employee count was 250, and the number became 220 at the end of the year. The
turnover rate at Glow Corp. in 2012 was _____.
|
a.
|
50%
|
|
b.
|
35%
|
|
c.
|
25%
|
|
d.
|
20%
|
36. —>
|
a.
|
50%
|
|
b.
|
25%
|
|
c.
|
4%
|
|
d.
|
2%
|
37. At Piaffe Products 15 employees had quit and
an additional 10 were fired for poor performance in the year during 2010. The
mid-year employee count was 50 for that year. Piaffe’s turnover rate for the
year 2010 was _____.
|
a.
|
10%
|
|
b.
|
20%
|
|
c.
|
30%
|
|
d.
|
50%
|
38. Jane quit Cover Corp. without completing a
high-priority project that she was handling. Due to her unavailability, the
four remaining members of her team had to work overtime and they demanded
adequate compensation to justify their extra hours of work. In this case, the
amount subsequently paid to them best exemplifies:
|
a.
|
separation
costs.
|
|
b.
|
vacancy costs.
|
|
c.
|
replacement
costs.
|
|
d.
|
training costs.
|
39. Which of the following is a replacement cost
that is caused by turnover in a company?
|
a.
|
Cost of training
materials
|
|
b.
|
Employee
referral fees
|
|
c.
|
Overtime paid to
existing employees
|
|
d.
|
Time spent in an
exit interview
|
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: LO: 05-05
NAT: BUSPROG:
Analytic STA: DISC: HRM TOP: Employee Turnover
KEY: Bloom's:
Comprehension
40. Carlos, the HR director of a large paper
manufacturing company, is studying the financial costs of turnover of plant
personnel at all levels. The easily calculable costs are sobering, but Carlos
is also concerned about the hidden costs of turnover that generally include:
|
a.
|
missed project
deadlines.
|
|
b.
|
co-worker
coaching and salaries.
|
|
c.
|
the cost of
pre-employment medical tests.
|
|
d.
|
the overtime
paid to employees covering the separated employees’ jobs.
|
41. Arden Insurance’s claims processing facility
has been a major employer in the town of Arbor for over 20 years, drawing
mainly on workers with minimal skills and education. A large telemarketing firm
is about to set up its business at Arden and it is planning to employ
low-skilled workers. Which of the following statements is true in this case?
|
a.
|
As Arden and the
marketing firm belong to different industries, the impact on Arden’s
workforce will be minimal since workers rarely switch between industries.
|
|
b.
|
The trained
workforce will not leave even if the telemarketing firm offers higher pay
than Arden.
|
|
c.
|
If Arden cannot
offer higher wages, it needs to make sure that its current employees are
satisfied with the intangible aspects of their jobs in order to retain them.
|
|
d.
|
Workers in small
towns tend to be loyal to their employers and hence, Arden’s current
employees are likely to stay with Arden.
|
42. In the current year, many talented teachers
have submitted their resignation notices in Sunnydale High School. The
president of the school management board is in a fix at this attrition even
when the school pays competitive wages to its teachers. In this case, which of
the following is the best recommendation for the president to follow?
|
a.
|
Money is the
main reason people stay in a job, so the school needs to consider how to
raise salaries even higher.
|
|
b.
|
When pay is
competitive, other job factors have more impact on turnover and need to be
considered and improved.
|
|
c.
|
In service
sector jobs, people are motivated more by the psychological aspects of the
work than by tangible rewards.
|
|
d.
|
Teachers usually
leave their jobs due to involuntary turnover, so pay is not a big factor in
their retention.
|
43. _____ is an intangible reward for
performance.
|
a.
|
Promotion to a
new position
|
|
b.
|
Verbal praise
from one’s supervisor
|
|
c.
|
A performance
bonus
|
|
d.
|
An opportunity
for training
|
44. If the compensation for a job is within _____
of the market rate, it is considered to be competitive pay.
|
a.
|
10% to 15%
|
|
b.
|
5% to 20%
|
|
c.
|
5% to 8%
|
|
d.
|
8% to 10%
|
45. In a(n) _____ interview, individuals are
asked to identify their reasons for leaving an organization.
|
a.
|
situational
|
|
b.
|
feedback
|
|
c.
|
appraisal
|
|
d.
|
exit
|
46. A financial services firm conducted an
attitude survey. It was found that although employees were generally satisfied
with their pay, they were dissatisfied with the organization’s management
style, promotion practices, and training programs. To manage these concerns, it
is recommended that the director of HR:
|
a.
|
work toward
finding the employees who had given the negative feedback and increase their
salaries.
|
|
b.
|
announce the
positive results of the survey, while beginning to work in private on
solutions to the problems revealed in the survey.
|
|
c.
|
hold group
meetings with employees to convey the positive and negative survey results
and get suggestions for improvements.
|
|
d.
|
communicate the
positive survey results, and argue against the negative results.
|
47. _____ is defined as the percentage of
employees at the beginning of a period who remain at the end.
|
a.
|
Retention rate
|
|
b.
|
Turnover rate
|
|
c.
|
Absenteeism
ratio
|
|
d.
|
Productivity
rate
|
48. Which of the following is the first step in
the process of managing retention?
|
a.
|
Measurement and
assessment
|
|
b.
|
Management
intervention
|
|
c.
|
Evaluation and
follow up
|
|
d.
|
Tracking of
intervention results
|
49. It is important to focus more on getting
employees in their first year to stay because:
|
a.
|
those who stay
for a year are more likely to extend their employment.
|
|
b.
|
first-year
employees are the most productive in an organization.
|
|
c.
|
first-year
employees are more knowledgeable than older employees.
|
|
d.
|
first-year
employees are more committed to organizational goals than older employees.
|
50. How does an exit interview help in employee
retention efforts?
|
a.
|
By providing
managers and supervisors with information for improving company efforts to
reduce employee turnover.
|
|
b.
|
By providing
managers and supervisors with information to increase involuntary turnover
|
|
c.
|
By providing
managers and supervisors with information to control involuntary turnover
|
|
d.
|
By providing
managers and supervisors with information to increase the incidence rate of
the company
|
1. According to Maslow’s need theory, an
employee strives to satisfy his or her higher order needs first.
2. According to Maslow’s need theory, motivation
is a goal-directed drive, and it seldom occurs in a void.
3. According to the two-factor theory,
addressing hygiene factors in an organization ensures that employees are
motivated to work harder.
4. According to the two-factor theory,
interpersonal relationships are considered to be motivators.
5. According to the equity theory, the outcomes
described in equity theory are always tangible.
6. One of the determinant of employees’
willingness to exert effort is the degree to which they value the rewards
offered by an organization.
7. The performance-reward linkage described in
the expectancy theory of motivation refers to employees’ beliefs that working
harder will lead to better performance.
8. Psychological contracts between employers and
employees are similar across cultures.
9. Employee productivity is a tangible aspect of
psychological contracts.
10. Employers can address job satisfaction by
regularly surveying employees.
11. Older employees tend to have lower job
satisfaction than younger employees.
12. Higher unemployment rates usually mean more
dissatisfied employees in the workforce.
13. Customer dissatisfaction is a direct cost of
absenteeism.
14. A no-fault policy in organizations allows
employees to manage their own attendance.
15. Severity rate is defined as the percentage of
time lost to absenteeism.
16. Work rule violation is the most common reason
for voluntary turnover.
17. A major reason for categorizing an employee’s
departure as functional rather than dysfunctional is his/her performance level.
18. Functional turnover usually proves to be
positive for organizations.
19. Churn tends to have a negative impact on the
remaining employees in an organization.
20. Vacancy costs incurred by a company during
turnover primarily include supervisory time, pay rates to prevent separations,
and exit interview time.
21. In situations where the financial impact of
turnover is insignificant, a company needs to pay greater attention to reducing
force loss.
22. Decreased customer service is a hidden cost
of turnover.
23. Paid orientation time is a training cost
involved in turnover.
24. The
reasons key people choose to stay with an employer are always the opposite of
those that compel others to quit.
25. Developing skills in employees increases the
likelihood that the employees would quit an organization.
26. Hiring has little to do with retention.
27. Insufficient pay is one of the reasons that
lead to employee turnover.
28. To increase employee satisfaction, the
performance management systems and performance appraisal processes in
organizations must be designed so they are linked to compensation increases.
29. It is common for turnover to be high among
newer employees during their first year.
30. Employees who stay for a year are more likely
to extend their employment and have greater retention beyond the first year.
1. The process of generating a pool of qualified
applicants for organizational jobs is called:
|
a.
|
requisitioning.
|
|
b.
|
pre-screening.
|
|
c.
|
recruiting.
|
|
d.
|
summoning.
|
2. Bryan is the recruiting specialist for an
online retailing company in Missouri. He used all types of recruiting
techniques available to him to fill nineteen job openings. Using these
techniques, exactly nineteen applicants with the minimum qualifications were
found and al the candidates accepted the job offer. Which of the following is true
about this scenario?
|
a.
|
The yield ratio will be 50%.
|
|
b.
|
A selection process is not necessary in the
given scenario.
|
|
c.
|
The acceptance rate in this scenario is
60%.
|
|
d.
|
The labor market in this area can be
described as “loose.”
|
3. Which of the following would be an advantage
for U.S. organizations that do not want to outsource their work overseas?
|
a.
|
Advancements in American worker
productivity
|
|
b.
|
Rapidly rising labor costs in countries
like India and China
|
|
c.
|
Restrictive U.S. requirements for work
permits
|
|
d.
|
Large tax penalties that U.S. firms must
pay if they outsource jobs
|
4. The _____ includes all individuals available
for selection, if all possible recruitment strategies are used.
|
a.
|
labor force population
|
|
b.
|
external labor market
|
|
c.
|
recruitment pool
|
|
d.
|
applicant population
|
5. Priam Designs Inc. is recruiting fashion
designers through LinkedIn. This recruiting mode typically provides direct
access to the _____.
|
a.
|
applicant pool
|
|
b.
|
entire pool of eligible candidates
|
|
c.
|
entire labor market
|
|
d.
|
applicant population
|
6. Stacy, the HR manager of a bank, restricts
her recruiting efforts for the post of loan officer to placing advertisements
on the Web site of the American Banking Association. This will allow Stacy to
determine the _____ for the job of loan officer.
|
a.
|
applicant population
|
|
b.
|
labor force population
|
|
c.
|
applicant pool
|
|
d.
|
entire labor market
|
7. The _____ pool consists of all persons who
are actually evaluated for selection.
|
a.
|
applicant
|
|
b.
|
selection
|
|
c.
|
labor
|
|
d.
|
talent
|
8. Linda
is the director of HR at Colette Value Inc., a large tax-preparation firm. The
firm faces a dearth of tax preparers every year when the tax season approaches.
Every December, Linda outsources a bulk of the recruiting process to an employment
agency to recruit temporary employees before the tax season begins. However,
she wants to do so without excessively limiting her final hiring decisions.
Which of the following processes of recruitment should Linda carry out first
hand?
|
a.
|
Advertising for recruitment over the
Internet
|
|
b.
|
Preliminary screening of résumés
|
|
c.
|
Designing the employment advertisements
|
|
d.
|
Face-to-face interviews with finalists
|
9. Karl Graphics is conducting a vigorous
recruiting campaign aimed at hiring 12 new employees within two weeks. This
best exemplifies _____ recruiting.
|
a.
|
continuous
|
|
b.
|
emergency
|
|
c.
|
intensive
|
|
d.
|
crisis
|
10. A(n) ____ typically takes over the staff of a
small business and writes the paychecks, pays the taxes, prepares and
implements HR policies, and keeps all the required records for a fee.
|
a.
|
employment agency
|
|
b.
|
payroll vendor
|
|
c.
|
professional employer organization
|
|
d.
|
third-party employer
|
11. One advantage of leasing companies for
employees is that:
|
a.
|
employers can save money on benefits.
|
|
b.
|
employers can hire permanent employees.
|
|
c.
|
it reduces total payroll costs for the
employers.
|
|
d.
|
it exempts employers following the OSHA
regulations.
|
12. Which of the following statements is true
about employees of employee leasing companies?
|
a.
|
They have employment contracts and are not
at-will employees.
|
|
b.
|
They increase the costs on benefits and HR
administration on the part of the employer.
|
|
c.
|
They are supplied by contract to employers
with jobs.
|
|
d.
|
They can be regarded as self-employed for
IRS purposes.
|
13. Which of the following candidates have the
highest probability of being rejected by a U.S. organization that practices
sound HR practices and recruits nontraditional diverse workers?
|
a.
|
A middle-aged white male who is currently
living in a halfway house for former drug addicts
|
|
b.
|
A 60-year-old woman living in an old age
home.
|
|
c.
|
A 19-year-old man with an IQ of 92
|
|
d.
|
A young college-educated Danish woman
without an H1 visa
|
14. Patricia, an outstanding performer, was
placed at Oliver & Co. by a temporary service firm for two months.
Patricia’s manager approaches Oliver & Co.’s HR Director with the request
that she wants her as a regular employee. Given this scenario, which of the
following statements is true?
|
a.
|
The temporary agency contract requires
Oliver & Co. to pay a placement fee if Patricia is hired as a regular
employee.
|
|
b.
|
The employers will not be liable for
Patricia’s safety under OSHA regulations.
|
|
c.
|
Patricia will be less expensive as a
regular employee than as a temporary employee because temporary employees
typically receive a 40% wage premium to offset the lack of benefits.
|
|
d.
|
Oliver & Co. is ethically bound not to
hire temporary employees provided by an agency for regular employment.
|
15. In which of the following situations would
the use of temporary workers be most appropriate?
|
a.
|
A company that has a low rate of turnover
among its regular employees.
|
|
b.
|
An employer who has received a long-term
contract from the Federal government for oceanic research.
|
|
c.
|
A tax preparation company that mostly
handles individual clients and has few business clients.
|
|
d.
|
A start-up company with a competitive
strategy of continuing expert customer service.
|
16. Angela is a self-employed graphic artist. She
is usually hired by companies for special projects that lasts from a week to
six months. Angela can be best described as a(n):
|
a.
|
independent contractor.
|
|
b.
|
undocumented worker.
|
|
c.
|
regular employee.
|
|
d.
|
full-time employee.
|
17. Which of the following statements is true
about recruiting diversity?
|
a.
|
An organization that advertises job
openings for individuals with “Christian values” employees would be
considered impartial.
|
|
b.
|
Affirmative Action Plans include hiring
goals for protected classes that the employer must try to meet with its
recruiting efforts.
|
|
c.
|
“Journeyman lineman” is a permissible term
for employment advertisements.
|
|
d.
|
Employers demonstrate exclusive recruiting
by having diverse individuals represented in company materials.
|
18. If an employer lists the designation
EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in its employment advertisements, it indicates that
|
a.
|
the employer will hire only minorities and
disabled persons.
|
|
b.
|
the company has been found liable in a
discrimination lawsuit.
|
|
c.
|
the employer has a policy of complying with
equal employment regulations.
|
|
d.
|
the company encourages disparity in its
workforce.
|
19. Paul is the director of recruitment at Times
Clockworks. After running a thorough study of their employees’ backgrounds,
Paul finds that Times Clockworks has disparate impact in the proportion of
Hispanic employees compared to the proportion of Hispanics in its labor market.
Which of the following steps should Paul take to solve the problem most
efficiently?
|
a.
|
Lower the job specifications for Hispanic
applicants
|
|
b.
|
Begin advertising for job openings on the
local Spanish radio station
|
|
c.
|
Continue its current recruiting practices
because only organizations with Affirmative Action Plans are required to meet
EEO guidelines
|
|
d.
|
Freeze the hiring process until qualified
Hispanics apply for the position
|
20. Which of the following statements is true
about good recruiting efforts?
|
a.
|
If a disparate impact exists between an
employer’s workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is
required by law to expand its external recruiting efforts.
|
|
b.
|
Advertising job openings for “exercise
boys” for a race track would be considered legal terminology.
|
|
c.
|
A salon that advertises job openings for
“young and enthusiastic” employees would be considered impartial.
|
|
d.
|
Wording about specific designations such as
EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in employment advertisements would be considered illegal.
|
21. Which of the following statements is true of
good recruiting efforts?
|
a.
|
If a disparate impact exists between an
employer’s workforce and the relevant labor markets, then the employer is
required by law to expand its internal recruiting efforts.
|
|
b.
|
If a company has few Somali employees in a
community with a large Somali presence, a good recruiting strategy is to have
company employees who are not from Somali to help with recruiting.
|
|
c.
|
It would be discriminatory for a race track
to advertise job openings for “exercise boys.”
|
|
d.
|
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
(EEOC) guidelines state that indirect references implying gender or age are
permitted.
|
22. Edison Inc., an electrical utility company,
is moving from using only traditional sources of electricity to promoting the
use of solar and wind power. It is one of the first utilities in the country to
move heavily to solar and wind-generated electricity. Which of the following
steps should the HR director take in order to cope with these new technologies
at Edison Inc.?
|
a.
|
Avoid including specific designations such
as EEO/M-F/AA/ADA in the job advertisements
|
|
b.
|
Highlight terms such as “young and
enthusiastic” and “ journeyman lineman” in their official Web sites
|
|
c.
|
Focus on training and development to
generate internal candidates for all the new positions at the utility
|
|
d.
|
Plan to do more extensive external
recruiting for technical and engineering positions
|
23. Which of the following is a defining
characteristic of regular staffing?
|
a.
|
It uses workers who are traditional
employees.
|
|
b.
|
It uses independent contractors.
|
|
c.
|
Companies can utilize the “try before you
buy” approach.
|
|
d.
|
Companies can avoid litigation associated
with the termination of workers.
|
24. A passive job seeker is one who:
|
a.
|
seeks a job merely because it is a
requirement of receiving unemployment compensation.
|
|
b.
|
conducts a haphazard and unplanned job
search.
|
|
c.
|
has a good job and is not actively looking
to change jobs.
|
|
d.
|
is an employed individual who is not
satisfied with his or her current job.
|
25. Which of the following statements is true of
job boards?
|
a.
|
Job boards enable job seekers to submit
résumés to many employers simultaneously.
|
|
b.
|
Much of the information provided by
companies on job boards is intended to mislead competitors.
|
|
c.
|
Applicants hired from job boards always
have worse average performance levels than applicants hired via social
networking media.
|
|
d.
|
Job boards fail to offer access to numerous
candidates.
|
26. John’s Medical is recruiting for the post of
an oncology nurse practitioner. It would be most effective for John’s Medical
to advertise:
|
a.
|
on a microblogging site like Twitter.
|
|
b.
|
online recruitment videos on a general job
board such as Monster.com or CareerTV.
|
|
c.
|
on the Web site of the oncology nurse
practitioner professional organization.
|
|
d.
|
on a social networking site such as
Facebook.
|
27. Which of the following is a feature of
Internet recruiting?
|
a.
|
It requires the filing of applicant EEO
reports.
|
|
b.
|
It requires the entire selection process to
be conducted virtually.
|
|
c.
|
It makes global recruiting easier, but
makes local recruiting complicated.
|
|
d.
|
It cannot be used to target specific
audiences.
|
28. Which of the following statements is true of
Internet recruiting?
|
a.
|
Twitter is rarely used by recruiters
because of the 140-word limit.
|
|
b.
|
The broad reach of Internet recruiting has
significantly reduced the amount of discrimination against job seekers from
racial/ethnic groups because it enlarges the applicant population
exponentially over traditional recruiting methods.
|
|
c.
|
If a recruiter checks an applicant’s
Facebook account, learns that the applicant is Jewish, and then rejects the
applicant, the company can be charged with an EEO discrimination complaint.
|
|
d.
|
An advantage of Internet recruiting is that
it streamlines EEO data gathering because everyone who accesses a job Web
site is considered an applicant for legal purposes.
|
29. The major saving in time generated by
Internet recruiting compared with traditional recruiting is:
|
a.
|
the time taken for conducting face-to-face
interviews.
|
|
b.
|
the time taken for communication between
the applicants and the employer.
|
|
c.
|
the time taken by new recruits to settle in
a job.
|
|
d.
|
the time taken by HR staff members for
handling blogs, tweets, and email with applicants versus snail mail, faxes
and phone calls.
|
30. Exclusive use of the Internet for recruiting
can reduce the diversity of an employer’s applicant population because:
|
a.
|
it will only attract the attention of
retirees who are interested in seeking new employment opportunities.
|
|
b.
|
individuals from lower socioeconomic groups
mostly have limited access to the Internet.
|
|
c.
|
the use of terminology such as “young and
enthusiastic” is restricted.
|
|
d.
|
it excludes retirees who are interested in
seeking new employment opportunities.
|
31. Which of the following would be the least
important topic of training for a recruiter who will conduct interviews in a
university campus?
|
a.
|
EEO regulations
|
|
b.
|
Details of the jobs and job specifications
|
|
c.
|
The company’s desired image and “brand”
|
|
d.
|
The company’s job posting software
|
32. When compared to internal recruitment, an
advantage of external recruiting is that:
|
a.
|
its selection process is more rigorous.
|
|
b.
|
it takes lesser time and resources.
|
|
c.
|
recruited employees often require more
orientation efforts.
|
|
d.
|
it has the potential to generate larger
applicant pools.
|
33. Which of the following is an example of
external sources of recruitment?
|
a.
|
A veterinarian selects one of her interns
as her assistant
|
|
b.
|
Jolene recommends her colleague to fill an
open position as a sales representative at the company where Jolene works as
a technician
|
|
c.
|
An assistant librarian is shortlisted for
the post of head librarian in the same library
|
|
d.
|
A salon shifts from Boston to New York and
employs a new cashier through internet recruitment.
|
34. Which of the following is the best way in
which recruiters can easily and accurately track responses to advertisements in
various media?
|
a.
|
Use only a few selected media.
|
|
b.
|
Ask applicants where they learned of the
position.
|
|
c.
|
Ask applicants which media they found most
effective.
|
|
d.
|
Use
different contact names, e-mail addresses, or phone number codes in each ad.
|
35. The best criterion to analyze the
effectiveness of an advertisement for applicants is to measure the:
|
a.
|
cost of the ad per applicant.
|
|
b.
|
total number of applicants generated by the
ad.
|
|
c.
|
number of applicants generated by the ad
who were hired.
|
|
d.
|
performance level of the hired applicants
generated by the ad.
|
36. Peter Cullen & Associates uses a private employment
agency to locate engineering staff. The company pays a fee to the employment
agency every time it hires a candidate provided by the employment agency. In
this this scenario, Peter Cullen & Associates is using the services of:
|
a.
|
a contingency firm.
|
|
b.
|
a retainer firm.
|
|
c.
|
a fee-for-service firm.
|
|
d.
|
a labor union.
|
37. There are two kinds of executive search
firms; _____ firms charge a fee regardless of the success of the search.
|
a.
|
contract
|
|
b.
|
commission
|
|
c.
|
contingency
|
|
d.
|
retainer
|
38. There are two kinds of executive search
firms; _____ firms typically charge a fee only when a candidate is hired.
|
a.
|
contract
|
|
b.
|
consulting
|
|
c.
|
contingency
|
|
d.
|
retainer
|
39. In the building trade, unions can best
benefit employers by providing:
|
a.
|
apprenticeship programs.
|
|
b.
|
providing interesting “employment games”
online.
|
|
c.
|
pre-screening for job seekers.
|
|
d.
|
providing competitive wage scales for jobs.
|
40. Job fairs are primarily useful for:
|
a.
|
rapid hiring of large numbers of people.
|
|
b.
|
maintaining a continuous presence in a
local labor market.
|
|
c.
|
passive recruiting.
|
|
d.
|
keeping out unemployable applicants.
|
41. Which of the following is a feature of school
and college recruiting?
|
a.
|
Vocational colleges and technical schools
often have cooperative programs with employers that funnel quality students
into regular jobs.
|
|
b.
|
College recruiting is one of the least
expensive recruitment methods.
|
|
c.
|
Companies who target minority students
before they graduate are likely to be violating EEO laws.
|
|
d.
|
School and college recruiting is a type of
internal recruitment.
|
42. Which of the following is true of internal
recruitment?
|
a.
|
Friends and family of current workers tend
to be less qualified than external hires, especially if bonuses are offered
to the referring employees.
|
|
b.
|
It has the potential to lead to EEO
violations if the current workforce is not diverse.
|
|
c.
|
Family connections moderate the normal
political maneuvering that occurs in firms.
|
|
d.
|
This process fails to motivate current
employees to perform better.
|
43. Which of the following is true of internal
recruitment?
|
a.
|
Inbreeding of employees typically result in
a more diverse workforce
|
|
b.
|
It can aid succession planning, future
promotions, and career development.
|
|
c.
|
Family connections moderate the normal
political maneuvering that occurs in firms.
|
|
d.
|
This process fails to motivate current
employees to perform better.
|
44. Which of the following is an advantage of
internal recruitment?
|
a.
|
Inbreeding of employees typically results
in a more diverse workforce.
|
|
b.
|
It ensures that there are no instances of
infighting.
|
|
c.
|
Recruiting costs are comparitively lower.
|
|
d.
|
It eliminates the need of development
programs when transfering employees into supervisory jobs.
|
45. Which of the following is a feature of job
posting and bidding?
|
a.
|
It gives existing employees the first
chance at job openings before external candidates are considered.
|
|
b.
|
Job posting reduces the threat of
organizational “in breeding,” because the posting crosses divisional and
departmental boundaries in the search for new talent.
|
|
c.
|
Job postings significantly hinder an
employee’s chances of promotion within an organization.
|
|
d.
|
In the case of internal recruitment, job
posting is not a reliable source.
|
46. Calculating the average time from contact to
hire allows a firm to most accurately:
|
a.
|
calculate the cost per hire.
|
|
b.
|
estimate the efficiency of recruiters.
|
|
c.
|
calculate the “float time” in the
recruiting process.
|
|
d.
|
target the most time-efficient recruiting
sources.
|
47. A _____ is a comparison of the number of
applicants at one stage of the recruiting process to the number at the next
stage.
|
a.
|
progression rate
|
|
b.
|
yield ratio
|
|
c.
|
hit rate
|
|
d.
|
success base rate
|
48. The percentage hired from a given group of
candidates is termed:
|
a.
|
the selection rate.
|
|
b.
|
the success base rate.
|
|
c.
|
the yield ratio.
|
|
d.
|
the acceptance rate.
|
49. The percent of applicants hired divided by
the total number of applicants offered jobs is termed as:
|
a.
|
the selection rate.
|
|
b.
|
the success base rate.
|
|
c.
|
the acceptance rate.
|
|
d.
|
the fill rate.
|
50. What can a recruiter learn from calculating
the acceptance rate?
|
a.
|
Whether recruiters can “close the deal”
with top candidates
|
|
b.
|
The proportion of candidates who are of
acceptable quality
|
|
c.
|
The cost effectiveness of the
organization’s internal mobility
|
|
d.
|
The competitiveness of the organization’s
salary structure
|
1. Recruiting is essentially an administrative
function rather than a part of strategic HR planning.
2. The term “applicant population” refers to all
individuals looking for a job in a particular geographic area.
3. The group of applicants that an organization
has available to it when using a particular recruiting approach, such as
Internet job boards, is the applicant population.
4. Santiago is the HR director of Illumin Media,
a mid-sized organization. He notices that the proportion of minorities in his
company’s managerial ranks is too low. To solve the issue, Illumin Media should
consider recruiting methods that reach a larger applicant population of
experienced managers, such as contacting professional associations.
5. Solange Allure Inc., a cosmetics company, is
moving its operations from Bogalusa, Louisiana, to Seattle, Washington. Solange
Allure will be changing its occupational labor market.
6. Continuous efforts to recruit offer the
advantage of keeping the employer in the recruiting market.
7. Intensive recruiting may take the form of a
vigorous recruiting campaign aimed at hiring a given number of employees.
8. Recruiting should be viewed as a type of
organizational marketing and should be consistent with an organization’s
overall presentation of its image.
9. Employment agencies typically have their own
workforce, which they supply by contract to employers with jobs.
10. Rules of the U.S. Internal Revenue Service
and the U.S. Department of Labor determine which workers qualify as independent
contractors.
11. Job boards can be used for internal
recruitment but not for external recruitment.
12. Niche job sites are more useful for
recruiting applicants with specific technical skills than are general job
boards.
13. Twitter is popular among recruiters because
of the absence of any character limit.
14. Blogging creates enough possible legal
concerns that regulations may be implemented by the U.S. Federal Trade
Commission.
15. A disadvantage of Internet recruiting is that
it generates large numbers of passive job seekers who, typically, tend to be of
low-quality.
16. Internet recruiting generates high numbers of
applicants and increases work for HR staff far beyond traditional recruiting
methods.
17. Recruiters
have completely stopped using newspaper ads as a tool for external recruitment
because job seekers use the Internet almost exclusively even in smaller cities
and towns.
18. Contingency
firms charge a client a set fee whether or not the contracted search is
successful.
19. An organization with a strong union has a
higher probability of having less flexibility than a nonunion company in
deciding who will be hired and where a newly hired person will be placed.
20. General job fairs are primarily preferred by
employers who are involved in continuous efforts to recruit.
21. There are instances of companies that begin
to attract students with capabilities while those students are in high school
by encouraging them to participate in engineering internships during summers.
22. An automated job posting system that
automatically contacts internal candidates by company e-mail is an effective
method for keeping good employees from looking outside the company for
advancement.
23. Utilizing current employee referrals of
family members and friends is not ethical because it increases the risk of
committing nepotism.
24. Rerecruiting former employees is a way of
avoiding “inbreeding” while still using an internal recruiting source.
25. Yield ratio is a measure of the quality of
job applicants.
26. An example of yield ratio is the proportion
of applicants who accept an offer compared to the number of applicants who were
interviewed at a job fair.
27. Acceptance rate measures not just recruiting
but selection issues as well.
28. Résumé mining allows HR staff to use software
to extract the most promising résumés from a large database.
29. The success base rate is a long-term measure
of whether the HR function has provided productive, long-term employees for an
organization.
30. A long-term measure of recruiting
effectiveness is to compare the number of past applicants who became successful
employees with the number of applicants against whom they competed for their
jobs.
The process of choosing individuals with
correct qualifications to fill jobs in an organization is called _____.
|
a.
|
recruitment
|
|
b.
|
selection
|
|
c.
|
job matching
|
|
d.
|
attrition
|
2. The purpose of selection is _____, fitting a
person to the right job.
|
a.
|
placement
|
|
b.
|
orientation
|
|
c.
|
recruitment
|
|
d.
|
staffing
|
3. More than anything else, placement of human
resources should be seen as a(n):
|
a.
|
public relations activity.
|
|
b.
|
operating management responsibility.
|
|
c.
|
matching process.
|
|
d.
|
marketing tool.
|
4. Lack of fit between a person and a job is
most likely to result from:
|
a.
|
mistakes in evaluating the person’s KSAs.
|
|
b.
|
improper employee training.
|
|
c.
|
negligence of exit interviews.
|
|
d.
|
a lack of a positive company “brand” that
attracts qualified applicants.
|
5. Mark is unhappy with his new job as a first
line supervisor at a call center. Mark finds the job boring and longs for the
end of his shift every day. He wants to apply for another job either within or
outside the organization. This is an example of:
|
a.
|
a realistic job preview.
|
|
b.
|
burnout.
|
|
c.
|
negligent hiring.
|
|
d.
|
a poor person/job fit.
|
6. Voltra Inc. is planning to fill a number of
openings for entry-level professionals. The selection process is quite
extensive and includes several levels of individual interviews, panel
interviews, psychological tests, and general ability tests. Much of the
interview time is spent on the applicant’s philosophy of life and work. Voltra
is highly concerned about:
|
a.
|
defining who is an applicant.
|
|
b.
|
complying with EEO and ADA requirements.
|
|
c.
|
person/organization fit.
|
|
d.
|
matching the person to the job.
|
7. Jill graduated with an MBA during a severe
economic recession. She accepted a job as a trainer for a major national bank.
Jill was one of the top candidates when she was hired by the bank. Three months
into her job, she feels that the individual bank customers are not valued, and
that the bank engages in misleading advertising. This is an example of:
|
a.
|
poor person/organization fit.
|
|
b.
|
a realistic job preview.
|
|
c.
|
negligent hiring.
|
|
d.
|
a snap judgment.
|
8. Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness
are all examples of:
|
a.
|
elements of job performance.
|
|
b.
|
selection criteria.
|
|
c.
|
predictors of selection criteria.
|
|
d.
|
soft skills.
|
9. Measurable or visible indicators of selection
criteria are called:
|
a.
|
reliable estimators.
|
|
b.
|
predictors.
|
|
c.
|
realistic job previews.
|
|
d.
|
validators.
|
10. Mary, the recruiter for Aurora Borealis
Lighting Inc., decides to hire an individual who has the ability to learn on
the job. They estimate it will be two years before the new hire will be fully
productive. Consequently, they are looking to hire a person who will be with
the company for at least four or five years. Mary suggests that they only hire
applicants who have been with their previous employers for at least two years,
and who have not changed their jobs too frequently. Mary’s suggestion is an
example of a:
|
a.
|
KSA.
|
|
b.
|
soft skill.
|
|
c.
|
realistic job preview.
|
|
d.
|
predictor of selection criteria.
|
11. In selection, validity refers to:
|
a.
|
the strength of the correlation between a
test score and a predictor.
|
|
b.
|
the consistency with which the predictor
actually tests the desired construct.
|
|
c.
|
the applicant achieving approximately the
same score in a test-retest situation.
|
|
d.
|
the correlation between a predictor and job
performance.
|
12. Which of the following is a feature about
validity?
|
a.
|
The EEOC prefers concurrent validity over
predictive validity studies of predictors.
|
|
b.
|
Concurrent validity studies take much
longer than do predictive studies of predictors.
|
|
c.
|
Concurrent validity studies use the
employer’s existing employees to test whether certain predictors are tied to
performance levels.
|
|
d.
|
Both concurrent and predictive validity
tests can be accurately run with as few as 15 employees.
|
13. For the last five years, the HR manager at
Fresh Foods has been asking all applicants to appear for a test. The HR manager
now intends to study the correlation between the test scores of those employees
that were hired and their performance appraisals and promotion records, and
whether they have stayed with the firm or have left. The HR manager is conducting
a:
|
a.
|
content validity test.
|
|
b.
|
concurrent validity test.
|
|
c.
|
face-validity test.
|
|
d.
|
predictive validity test.
|
14. The _____ of a test is the extent to which a
predictor repeatedly produces the same results over time.
|
a.
|
reliability
|
|
b.
|
test validity
|
|
c.
|
consistency
|
|
d.
|
predictability
|
15. In the _____ approach for combining
predictors, a minimum cutoff score is set on each predictor, and to be
considered, each minimum level must be “passed.”
|
a.
|
universal predictor
|
|
b.
|
compensatory
|
|
c.
|
multiple hurdles
|
|
d.
|
matching
|
16. For the position of firefighter in Redville,
the physical requirements are rigorous and the selection process involves many
ability tests. Mark has a hearing impairment. This impairment alone caused him
to be disqualified, even though Mark passed all the other physical tests and
pencil-and-paper tests that were conducted earlier. This is an example of:
|
a.
|
the compensatory approach to selection.
|
|
b.
|
poor person/organization fit.
|
|
c.
|
discrimination under the ADA.
|
|
d.
|
the multiple hurdles approach of combining
predictors.
|
17. How does the compensatory approach combine
predictors?
|
a.
|
A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor
|
|
b.
|
A higher score on one predictor offsets a
lower score on another
|
|
c.
|
The highest predictor scores for all test
takers is used to set an average cutoff
|
|
d.
|
Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for
the different predictors
|
18. HR professionals are least likely to make the
final hiring decisions when _____ positions are filled.
|
a.
|
clerical
|
|
b.
|
contract
|
|
c.
|
entry-level
|
|
d.
|
middle-management
|
19. The purpose of a _____ is to give applicants
an accurate idea of the positive and negative aspects of a job so that they can
more accurately evaluate the employment situation.
|
a.
|
job specification
|
|
b.
|
realistic job preview
|
|
c.
|
truth-in-hiring approach
|
|
d.
|
job analysis
|
20. What is the main purpose of preemployment
screening?
|
a.
|
To provide a realistic job preview and
discourage potential applicants who would be dissatisfied with the job
|
|
b.
|
To identify applicants with arrest records
and convictions
|
|
c.
|
To determine if applicants meet the minimum
qualifications for job openings
|
|
d.
|
To obtain information for EEO and
affirmative action reports
|
21. A new Gulf Coast casino plans to hire over
1,000 employees for its new resort. The casino’s HR department requires
applicants to complete an online questionnaire which is later analyzed using
computer software and only those applicants who have previously worked in
hotels and casinos are considered eligible for the next step in the hiring
process. This is an example of a:
|
a.
|
compensatory approach to selection.
|
|
b.
|
realistic job preview.
|
|
c.
|
preemployment screening process.
|
|
d.
|
multiple hurdles approach to selection.
|
22. Which of the following is a fundamental
purpose of an application form?
|
a.
|
It forms the basis for an organization’s
EEO/affirmative action plans.
|
|
b.
|
It can be used as a defense in an ADA
discrimination case.
|
|
c.
|
It is a record of an employer’s desire to
hire someone for an open position.
|
|
d.
|
It acts as a basic employee record for
applicants who are eventually hired.
|
23. _____ means that the employer or applicant
has the right to terminate employment at any time with or without notice or
cause (where applicable by state law).
|
a.
|
Employment-at-will
|
|
b.
|
Right-to-work
|
|
c.
|
Free agency
|
|
d.
|
Contingency employment
|
24. Greta is the new HR manager at a small
company. The previous HR manager had kept every scrap of paper that crossed his
desk during the last ten years but Greta is determined to clear out the
unnecessary documents. Greta knows she should keep all applications and
hiring-related documents and records _____ before they can be discarded.
|
a.
|
for one year
|
|
b.
|
for three years
|
|
c.
|
for five years
|
|
d.
|
for seven years
|
25. Roger, a new HR manager at Charlemagne Tools
Inc., examines the application form that the company has been using for the
last two years. According to the guidelines set by the EEOC and various court
decisions, which of the following is an illegal question in the application
form?
|
a.
|
Have you ever been convicted of a felony?
|
|
b.
|
Can you perform the duties of the job with
accommodation?
|
|
c.
|
What is your driver’s license number?
|
|
d.
|
Who should we contact in case of emergency?
|
26. In verifying the identities and credentials
of job applicants, employers must use the revised form I-9 for each employee
hired and must:
|
a.
|
permit annual audits of HR records by ICE
agents.
|
|
b.
|
send copies of all documents submitted by
employees to the Immigration and Naturalization Service within 48 hours of
hiring.
|
|
c.
|
determine whether a job applicant is a U.S.
citizen, registered alien, or illegal alien, within 72 hours of hiring.
|
|
d.
|
contact the Department of Homeland Security
within 24 hours if an illegal alien applies for a job with a government
contractor in the transportation sector.
|
27. Kevin, a recent college graduate, applied for
a job with a firm which provides security to high-profile individuals. During
the selection process, he was given a test for visual memory. Tests such as
these are classified as:
|
a.
|
psychomotor ability tests.
|
|
b.
|
cognitive ability tests.
|
|
c.
|
illegal tests that discriminate against the
disabled.
|
|
d.
|
work sample tests.
|
28. _____ measure dexterity, hand-eye
coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.
|
a.
|
Physical ability tests
|
|
b.
|
Work sample tests
|
|
c.
|
Aptitude tests
|
|
d.
|
Psychomotor tests
|
29. Amanda has applied for a job and has taken a
number of selection tests. She has not been given a conditional job offer.
Which of the following tests can she refuse to take because it will be
considered illegal under the ADA?
|
a.
|
A step test for endurance
|
|
b.
|
An English fluency test
|
|
c.
|
A test to demonstrate her ability to use
photo editing software
|
|
d.
|
An honesty test
|
30. An “in-basket” test is an example of a _____
test.
|
a.
|
psychological
|
|
b.
|
psychomotor
|
|
c.
|
work sample
|
|
d.
|
physical ability
|
31. A(n) _____ is a selection and development
device composed of a series of evaluative exercises and tests in which
candidates are evaluated by a panel of trained raters.
|
a.
|
situational judgment test
|
|
b.
|
assessment center
|
|
c.
|
panel interview
|
|
d.
|
work simulation
|
32. The purpose of a(n) _____ is to obtain
additional information on a candidate and to clarify information gathered
throughout the selection process.
|
a.
|
personality test
|
|
b.
|
application form
|
|
c.
|
selection interview
|
|
d.
|
polygraph
|
33. Kent and Julie are both recruiters for
Sunspree Corp. When both of them interview the same applicant, they often find
that they have different opinions about the applicant’s potential as a future
high performer for Sunspree. Kent and Julie demonstrate:
|
a.
|
low inter-rater reliability.
|
|
b.
|
high inter-rater reliability.
|
|
c.
|
high intra-rater reliability.
|
|
d.
|
low intra-rater reliability.
|
34. Which of the following is true of all
structured interviews?
|
a.
|
All candidates meet with the same
interviewer.
|
|
b.
|
A set of standardized questions are asked
of all job applicants.
|
|
c.
|
Each candidate appears before a panel of
interviewers.
|
|
d.
|
Questions are designed to address all of
the Big Five personality traits.
|
35. The great advantage of structured selection
interviews over unstructured interviews is their:
|
a.
|
naturalness and ability to set the
candidate at ease.
|
|
b.
|
effectiveness at organizational branding.
|
|
c.
|
consistency in evaluation of candidates.
|
|
d.
|
improvisational approach to gathering
information about candidates.
|
36. The _____ interview is more reliable and
valid than the others types of interviews.
|
a.
|
sequential
|
|
b.
|
nondirective
|
|
c.
|
stress
|
|
d.
|
structured
|
37. Gerard, a job applicant, was asked to appear
for an interview by an organization. Gerard spent the first 15 minutes of the
job interview relating details about his education and work experience to the
interviewer. This is a _____ interview.
|
a.
|
behavioral
|
|
b.
|
competency
|
|
c.
|
biographical
|
|
d.
|
non-directive
|
38. Patrick, a job applicant, was asked by his
interviewer, “In your previous job, how did you handle employees who were poor
performers?” Based on this information, what type of interview did Patrick attend?
|
a.
|
Behavioral interview
|
|
b.
|
Biographical interview
|
|
c.
|
Nondirective interview
|
|
d.
|
Situational interview
|
39. In her interview for a position as a
bartender at a luxury hotel bar, Megan was asked “What would you do if one of
the customers started slurring her words and began making off-color jokes that
other customers in the bar could hear?” Such types of questions are typically
asked in _____ interviews.
|
a.
|
behavioral
|
|
b.
|
nondirective
|
|
c.
|
situational
|
|
d.
|
stress
|
40. The selection process for hiring the
assistant to the mayor of a large city includes giving the finalists three
hypothetical crisis scenarios. One deals with a terrorist threat at a sporting
event, another deals with a plane crash at the airport, and the third deals
with a major earthquake. Each candidate must describe her/his approach to
handling the crisis, which will be recorded and evaluated by a panel. This is
an example of a:
|
a.
|
competency interview.
|
|
b.
|
behavioral interview.
|
|
c.
|
stress interview.
|
|
d.
|
situational interview.
|
41. Gisela has just finished her interview with
the managing editor of a large city newspaper. She is shaken and upset because
the editor talked about her educational background in an insulting tone. He
also pressured her to answer confusing questions without allowing her time to
collect her thoughts. Given this scenario, Gisela most likely attended a _____
interview.
|
a.
|
behavioral
|
|
b.
|
nondirective
|
|
c.
|
biographical
|
|
d.
|
stress
|
42. Which of the following types of selection
interviews is unstructured?
|
a.
|
Behavioral interview
|
|
b.
|
Situational interview
|
|
c.
|
Competency interview
|
|
d.
|
Nondirective interview
|
43. Anthony was interviewing an applicant to be a
volunteer docent (instructor and tour guide) for a large art museum. During the
course of the interview, the applicant began to discuss her interest in
introducing young children to great works of art. Anthony followed up with
several questions about how young children react to art, why she felt early
exposure to art was important, and how she would design situations for children
to experience art. Anthony was conducting a _____ interview.
|
a.
|
behavioral
|
|
b.
|
nondirective
|
|
c.
|
stress
|
|
d.
|
structured
|
44. The position for City Manager of Scenic River
attracted many applicants. As part of the selection process, the applicants
each appeared one-by-one before the entire Scenic River Board of Aldermen for
an interview. This is an example of a _____ interview.
|
a.
|
panel
|
|
b.
|
mass
|
|
c.
|
biographical
|
|
d.
|
situational
|
45. The interior decorators, designers, and
architects of WorldKraft Design work together in self-managing work groups.
This structure is key to the organization’s culture, and it is important that
new hires fit in with the work group to which they are assigned. In this case,
it would be wise to use:
|
a.
|
multiple-hurdle interviews.
|
|
b.
|
stress interviews.
|
|
c.
|
biographical interviews.
|
|
d.
|
team interviews.
|
46. The problem of _____ occurs when interviewers
make a decision on the job suitability of applicants within the first few
minutes of the interview and spend the balance of the interview looking for
evidence to support it.
|
a.
|
cultural noise
|
|
b.
|
snap judgment
|
|
c.
|
stereotyping
|
|
d.
|
negative emphasis
|
47. Which of the following occurs when an
interviewer allows a positive characteristic about a job applicant to
overshadow other evidence?
|
a.
|
Halo effect
|
|
b.
|
Cultural noise
|
|
c.
|
Similarity bias
|
|
d.
|
Snap judgment
|
48. Which of the following occurs when
interviewers favor or select people whom they believe to be like themselves on
the basis of a variety of personal factors?
|
a.
|
Halo effect
|
|
b.
|
Cultural noise
|
|
c.
|
Similarity bias
|
|
d.
|
First impression error
|
49. The main legal reason for performing a
thorough background check of all applicants is:
|
a.
|
to comply with the Immigration and
Naturalization Act.
|
|
b.
|
to avoid résumé fraud.
|
|
c.
|
to prevent discrimination against protected
classes.
|
|
d.
|
to protect the organization against charges
of negligent hiring.
|
50. A school district hired a school bus driver
without conducting a multi-state criminal background check; a background check
was conducted only in the state in which the school was located. Subsequently,
the school bus driver was convicted of kidnapping one of the children who
traveled in his bus. The prosecution in the case revealed that the driver had been
convicted ten years ago for a similar case in another state. The school
district is guilty of:
|
a.
|
information falsification.
|
|
b.
|
stereotyping.
|
|
c.
|
compensatory hiring.
|
|
d.
|
negligent hiring.
|
51. Angus has been a bus driver for a tour bus
company for the last 15 years and has an excellent driving record. Last year,
Angus was on medical leave for 8 weeks due to a back injury which has left him
in chronic pain. If Angus has an accident while driving one of the tour buses
because of the effects of his prescription pain medication and if passengers
are injured, the company might be liable for:
|
a.
|
failure to conduct a thorough background
check on Angus.
|
|
b.
|
negligent hiring.
|
|
c.
|
criminal negligence.
|
|
d.
|
negligent retention.
|
52. Which of the following statements is true
about medical examinations and inquiries?
|
a.
|
A company may require applicants to take a
drug test even before a conditional job offer has been made.
|
|
b.
|
A preemployment health checklist can be
required of applicants before a job offer is made, but physical medical exams
cannot be requested until a job has been conditionally offered.
|
|
c.
|
A drug test is considered a medical exam
and cannot be administered unless a conditional job offer has been made.
|
|
d.
|
Companies may ask questions about an
applicant’s current medical condition but not about past medical problems,
even after a conditional job offer has been made.
|
53. Morgan, the best candidate for the position
of director of marketing, has tested positive for the presence of illegal drugs
in a hair sample. Given this scenario, the HR manager should:
|
a.
|
notify Morgan that he was denied the job
because of a positive drug test.
|
|
b.
|
inform Morgan that someone else has been
hired.
|
|
c.
|
hire Morgan and inform him of the company’s
Employee Assistance program.
|
|
d.
|
ask Morgan to submit to a second type of
drug test at another laboratory.
|
54. Carrie phoned an applicant’s former
supervisor for a reference. The supervisor refuses to give any information
about the former employee. What mistake may Carrie have made?
|
a.
|
She did not get a signed consent form from
the applicant releasing the former supervisor from liability.
|
|
b.
|
She limited her request for information to
dates of employment, positions held, and the applicant’s previous job title
rather than asking for particular examples of good or poor performance.
|
|
c.
|
She contacted the supervisor by phone
rather than in writing or via email, thus opening the supervisor to a charge
of slander by the applicant.
|
|
d.
|
Former supervisors rarely provide useful
information, so it is not an effective use of Carrie’s time to pursue this
contact.
|
55. What is the main purpose of an applicant flow
form?
|
a.
|
To report applicant demographic data to the
EEOC
|
|
b.
|
To document that the employer asked each
applicant to voluntarily provide demographic data
|
|
c.
|
To use the protected class status of
individuals to make hiring decisions
|
|
d.
|
To collect EEO data that the applicant is
required by law to provide
|
1. In selection, a predictor is a characteristic
that a person must have to perform a job successfully.
2. Reliability is the ability of a test to
produce the same results repeatedly over time.
3. “Aaron might not be the sharpest person I
know, since his cognitive scores are pretty low. But he showed wonderful interpersonal
skills with guests in our simulations. I suggest that we hire him, and give him
some intense training on our desk procedures.” This is an example of the
compensatory approach to combining predictors of work performance.
4. When operating managers are allowed to select
their own staff, the effectiveness of the selection process is enhanced because
the operating managers have an instinctive feel for the type of employee who
would perform well in their department.
5. The brand of an organization is clarified and
sharpened by realistic job previews that focus on both the attractive and
unattractive aspects of a job.
6. Courts have ruled that disqualification
questions that screen out potential job applicants before the individuals even
fill out a job application are discriminatory.
7. Albert, a top-performing district manager,
was fired when his employer learned that he had not graduated with an MBA as
Albert had indicated on his application form two years ago. The employer’s
application form contained a disclosure that falsification of application
information was grounds for termination. Albert’s attorney says that the
employer’s termination of Albert is illegal because application fraud is
applicable only within the first year of employment with the employer. Albert’s
attorney is correct.
8. According to the EEOC, if an applicant’s
résumé voluntarily furnishes some information that cannot be legally obtained,
the employer should not use that information during the selection process.
9. If employers do not use E-Verify to determine
if an applicant is legally permitted to work in the U.S., the employer is
considered to be in technical violation of federal law and can be audited by
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
10. Ernest is applying for a carpentry
apprenticeship program. He must take a test involving mathematical calculations
including working with fractions and geometry. This is illegal because
carpentry is a manual labor job and these tests are cognitive and not
job-related.
11. John has a minor hand tremor which affects
his ability to write legibly. This hand tremor would most likely lower John’s
score on the MacQuarie Test for Mechanical Ability and disqualify him for jobs
requiring fine manual dexterity.
12. On the Big Five personality framework, Bob
has tested as broad-minded, curious, and original, which would mean that he is
extroverted.
13. Organizations can use honesty/integrity tests
to communicate to applicants and employees alike that dishonesty will not be
tolerated.
14. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act
prohibits employers, including federal, state, and local government agencies,
from using polygraphs for preemployment screening purposes.
15. In general, the more structured a type of
selection interview, the more likely it is to be statistically valid.
16. In a situational interview, applicants are
required to give specific examples of how they have handled a problem in the
past.
17. A nondirective interview allows the
interviewer to improvise and pursue interesting nonroutine discussions.
Consequently, the nondirective interview is more likely to turn up critical
information that can be compared across applicants than a prepared list of
questions.
18. Listening responses such as mirroring and
echoing may backfire for managers doing job interviews because these responses
give feedback to the applicant.
19. Interviewers are legally allowed to ask
applicants questions about their national origin and marital status.
20. It is legal for an employer to check a
person’s Social Security number, motor vehicle records, and military records
when performing a background check on an applicant.
21. Negligent hiring occurs when an employer
becomes aware that an employee may be unfit for employment but continues to
employ the person, and the person injures someone on the job.
22. The ADA prohibits the use of preemployment
medical exams, except for drug tests, until a job has been conditionally
offered.
23. Jennifer, the HR employee of a company, sends
an offer letter to the applicant who is significantly more promising than any
of the other applicants. The letter welcomes the applicant to the company, and
reads, “We look forward to many years of a mutually-beneficial, productive
relationship.” This language is appropriate because there is no offer of a
permanent job.
24. The selection process for an international
assignment should provide a realistic picture of the life, work, and culture to
which the employee may be sent.
25. Poor adaptation of an expatriate’s spouse
and/or family to the overseas location is a major factor in the failure of
expatriate assignments.
26. The United States is the only country which
restricts the employment of foreign nationals by requiring work permits and
visas.
27. All U.S. EEOC regulations and laws apply to
foreign-owned firms operating in the United States.
28. EEO laws require employers to collect data on
race, sex, and other demographics about their applicants but, legally,
employers are not allowed to use this information in making hiring decisions
except in very limited circumstances.
29. Since “soft skills” are difficult to test
for, and interviewing for these skills often puts women candidates at a
disadvantage, the EEOC’s guidelines require that applicants be selected for
quantifiable or measurable “hard skills” only.
1. _____ provides emailployees
with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use in their present jobs.
|
a.
|
Pre-screening
|
|
b.
|
Recruiting
|
|
c.
|
Networking
|
|
d.
|
Training
|
2. Henry, a trainer at a chemical company, schedules a
training on handling hazardous materials for the new batch of employees in the
production unit of the company. The training complies with OSHA regulations and
was already provided to the other employees of the company. This best
exemplifies _____ training.
|
a.
|
|
interpersonal
|
|
b.
|
|
required and
regular
|
|
c.
|
|
emergency
|
|
d.
|
|
problem-solving
|
3. A fitness center is planning to invest in a specialized
exercise equipment. This equipment is highly effective, but the club members
could be injured if the equipment is not used correctly. The fitness center is
sends its exercise instructors to a certified training program to learn how to
use these machines correctly. This is best classified as:
|
a.
|
career training.
|
|
b.
|
job/technical
training.
|
|
c.
|
problem-solving
training.
|
|
d.
|
developmental
training.
|
4. Development is distinguished from training, in that:
|
a.
|
development is
broader in scope, focusing on individuals gaining new capabilities useful for
both present and future jobs.
|
|
b.
|
EEO laws and regulations
apply primarily to training, not development.
|
|
c.
|
training is
usually provided internally whereas development takes place in external
learning environments.
|
|
d.
|
development
provides people with specific, identifiable knowledge and skills for use on
their present jobs.
|
5. Which of the following statements is true of training?
|
a.
|
It is illegal to
ask part-time employees to take work-related training after work.
|
|
b.
|
If part-time
employees are required to take work-related training during their free time,
they must be compensated for the time spent in training.
|
|
c.
|
If a part-time
employee takes a college course that applies directly to his/her current job
and will increase his/her performance, the employer is required to pay the
employee’s tuition.
|
|
d.
|
An employer is
required to pay part-time employees only for training they take at a work
location or training facility, and not for the training through Web-based
classes.
|
6. Organizations must continually train their current
employees because of:
|
a.
|
the need to
increase the rate of attrition.
|
|
b.
|
rapid
technological innovation.
|
|
c.
|
the lack of
competition from businesses in low labor cost countries.
|
|
d.
|
low involuntary
turnover rates of U.S. employees.
|
7. Organizations in many industries create value by using
the organization’s intellectual capital. This is called _____ management.
|
a.
|
intellectual
|
|
b.
|
knowledge
|
|
c.
|
intelligence
|
|
d.
|
creativity
|
8. Which of the following statements is true of global
competitiveness?
|
a.
|
Globally, there
is a decline in the supply of specialized skilled and technical workers
signaling a worldwide crisis in education.
|
|
b.
|
For U.S.
employers, the challenge related to training a globally competitive workforce
has increased because of the decline in specialized skilled and technical
workers.
|
|
c.
|
Despite its
shortcomings, the U.S. educational system is generating an increasing supply
of specialized skilled and technical workers.
|
|
d.
|
Companies that
send their employees abroad should focus more on skills and technical
capabilities training rather than wasting their time in preparing them for
the host country’s culture.
|
9. The “emotional” component of intercultural competence is
the person’s:
|
a.
|
level of
sensitivity to cultural issues.
|
|
b.
|
ability to
connect with foreigners on an emotional level.
|
|
c.
|
ability to
handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment.
|
|
d.
|
ability to take
on the emotional characteristics of the culture to which he/she is assigned.
|
10. The “cognitive” component of intercultural competence is
the person’s:
|
a.
|
level of
sensitivity to cultural issues.
|
|
b.
|
ability to
connect with foreigners on an emotional level.
|
|
c.
|
ability to
handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment.
|
|
d.
|
knowledge about
a foreign culture.
|
11. EarthShapers Inc., a manufacturer of heavy construction
equipments based in U.S.A., maintains large sales and support operations
overseas. Before sending new employees to its operations in Japan, it requires
the employees to take courses in Japanese history and culture so that they can
adjust more easily to living in Japan. This training focuses on the _____
component of international competence training.
|
a.
|
cognitive
|
|
b.
|
conceptual
|
|
c.
|
emotional
|
|
d.
|
behavioral
|
12. The planned introduction of new employees to their jobs,
coworkers, and the organization is referred to as _____.
|
a.
|
orientation
|
|
b.
|
organizational
entry
|
|
c.
|
socialization
|
|
d.
|
indoctrination
|
13. In the _____ phase of the training process, organizational
and employee performance issues are considered to determine if training can
help.
|
a.
|
needs assessment
|
|
b.
|
implementation
|
|
c.
|
evaluation
|
|
d.
|
design
|
14. Attitude survey data are typically used in _____ analysis
of training needs.
|
a.
|
individual
|
|
b.
|
organizational
|
|
c.
|
task
|
|
d.
|
job
|
15. The loan review department at a major regional bank has an
exceptionally high turnover of both administrative assistants and analysts.
Several analysts have quit within six months of taking the job. In this
scenario, a(n) _____ analysis would most accurately reveal if there is a need
for training in this department that would reduce the level of turnover.
|
a.
|
job/task
|
|
b.
|
organizational
|
|
c.
|
individual
|
|
d.
|
productivity
|
16. The most common approach for making individual analysis is
to:
|
a.
|
analyze
organizational outcomes.
|
|
b.
|
predict future
organizational needs.
|
|
c.
|
use performance
appraisal data.
|
|
d.
|
review the jobs
involved.
|
17. Once training requirements have been identified using
needs analyses, training objectives and priorities can be established by:
|
a.
|
conducting
orientation programs.
|
|
b.
|
conducting exit
interviews.
|
|
c.
|
conducting a
“SWOT analysis.”
|
|
d.
|
conducting a
“gap analysis.”
|
18. In the context of training, self-efficacy refers to:
|
a.
|
a person’s
desire to learn training content.
|
|
b.
|
a trainer’s
belief that the learners possess the basic skills required to learn new
tasks.
|
|
c.
|
the perceived
ability of the instructor to transfer the knowledge to the student.
|
|
d.
|
a person's belief
that he/she can successfully learn the training program content.
|
19. Jeanne is 54 years old. She had worked as a medical
research librarian for ten years before quitting in her late forties. She wants
to re-enter the workforce. However, she is worried about applying for an open
position at the library she was previosly working at because of the major
changes in information technology that have taken place in library management.
She also feels intimidated by computers. The HR director of the library feels
Jeanne is highly qualified for the position in question. Given this scenario,
what would be the main barrier to her learning the job tasks?
|
a.
|
The fact that
Jeanne may not have the ability to learn the library’s computer system even
with training
|
|
b.
|
The fact that
Jeanne won’t see the benefits of learning the library’s computer system
|
|
c.
|
Jeane’s low
motivation levels as she wants to get into a new career
|
|
d.
|
Jeanne’s low
sense of self-efficacy regarding the use of computer technology
|
20. Active practice occurs when:
|
a.
|
job-related
tasks and duties are performed by trainees during training.
|
|
b.
|
off-the-job
training is provided to new employees at a job.
|
|
c.
|
trainees are
shown how to actively multitask.
|
|
d.
|
e-learning tools
are used to deliver training.
|
21. At Plantsman’s Eden nursery, new workers are trained in
proper techniques for planting rooted cuttings. As part of the training, each
of the workers are given ten seedlings to plant. Their planting techniques are
then checked by the trainer. This best exemplifies:
|
a.
|
active practice.
|
|
b.
|
behavior
modeling.
|
|
c.
|
cross training.
|
|
d.
|
conference
training.
|
22. A group of oil refinery supervisors from the U.S. attend
a class on Spanish language every Thursday afternoon. Their main purpose is to
use Spanish to communicate with their contractors whose primary language is
Spanish. This best illustrates _____.
|
a.
|
spaced practice
|
|
b.
|
massed practice
|
|
c.
|
immediate
confirmation strategy
|
|
d.
|
reinforcement
strategy
|
23. Cole, the director of training for a manufacturer of heavy
equipments, is designing a training program for new sales representatives. The
sales representatives need to be able to memorize and recall the exact details
from the company catalog regarding types of equipment, their functions, their
appropriate and inappropriate uses, pricing, and financing packages. Cole’s
training program would be most effective if he designed it based on _____
practice.
|
a.
|
computer-based
|
|
b.
|
spaced
|
|
c.
|
massed
|
|
d.
|
passive
|
24. The fire fighters of Lake Hogan Fire Department train
constantly to keep their skills honed so that they can respond quickly to
sudden changes in an emergency situation. This best exemplifies:
|
a.
|
behavioral
modeling.
|
|
b.
|
overlearning.
|
|
c.
|
reinforcement
and immediate confirmation.
|
|
d.
|
spaced practice.
|
25. The most elementary way in which people learn is _____,
which involves copying someone else’s behavior.
|
a.
|
behavioral
modification
|
|
b.
|
behavioral
modeling
|
|
c.
|
cognitive
practice
|
|
d.
|
positive
reinforcement
|
26. Molly, a customer service representative for an insurance
company, was rude to one of her customers. The customer immediately contacted
Molly’s supervisor and lodged a complaint. Molly’s supervisor then reprimanded
Molly and recorded the incident in her file. Molly has made a conscious effort
ever since not to repeat the same mistake. This best exemplifies:
|
a.
|
the law of
effect.
|
|
b.
|
delayed
reinforcement.
|
|
c.
|
transfer of
training.
|
|
d.
|
behavioral
modeling.
|
27. Soltura Products Inc. has a training program for customer
service representatives that tests trainees on their knowledge of company
products. Every time a trainee answers a question, he/she learns whether the
answer is right or wrong. This is called:
|
a.
|
behavior
modeling.
|
|
b.
|
massed practice.
|
|
c.
|
immediate
confirmation.
|
|
d.
|
active practice.
|
28. One way to aid transfer of training to job situations is
to ensure that:
|
a.
|
the trainers
have high levels of self-efficacy.
|
|
b.
|
the trainees are
not troubled with follow-up exercises.
|
|
c.
|
the trainers
focus primarily on informal training.
|
|
d.
|
the training
mirrors the job context as much as possible.
|
29. The most common method of delivering training at all
levels in an organization is:
|
a.
|
on-the-job
training.
|
|
b.
|
cross training.
|
|
c.
|
web-based
training.
|
|
d.
|
informal
training.
|
30. Which of the following is true about on-the-job training
(OJT)?
|
a.
|
It can disrupt
regular work in an organization.
|
|
b.
|
It is the least
flexible of all the available employee training methods.
|
|
c.
|
It is more
expensive than classroom training.
|
|
d.
|
It is typically
outsourced to external firms.
|
31. Which of the following is true about on-the-job training
(OJT)?
|
a.
|
It is less
disruptive to the work flow than other types of employee training methods.
|
|
b.
|
It is flexible
and relevant to what employees do.
|
|
c.
|
It is more
expensive than classroom training.
|
|
d.
|
It is typically
outsourced to external firms.
|
32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the on-the-job
training (OJT)?
|
a.
|
Incorrect
information from the supervisor can be transferred to the trainees.
|
|
b.
|
It is the least
flexible of all the available modes of employee training.
|
|
c.
|
It is more
expensive than classroom training.
|
|
d.
|
External firms
are typically used for training purposes.
|
33. Dr. Smith, a veterinarian, has hired Carlos as an
assistant. On Carlos’s first day at work, Dr. Smith shows him the technique of
holding a cat for vaccinations. First, Dr. Smith describes the technique, and
then he practically shows the process of vaccination. Later he asks Carlos to
hold the cat and corrects his mistakes. This is an example of:
|
a.
|
cross-training.
|
|
b.
|
virtual
training.
|
|
c.
|
simulation
training.
|
|
d.
|
on-the-job
training.
|
34. For employers, one of the advantages of cross training
employees is:
|
a.
|
narrowed job
jurisdictions.
|
|
b.
|
increased
employee productivity without pay raises or bonuses.
|
|
c.
|
better union
relations.
|
|
d.
|
employee
development.
|
35. For the employer, the two major advantages of cross
training employees are employee development and:
|
a.
|
narrowed job
jurisdictions.
|
|
b.
|
increased
employee productivity without pay raises or bonuses.
|
|
c.
|
better union
relations.
|
|
d.
|
flexibility in
assigning work.
|
36. Cross training occurs when:
|
a.
|
people are
trained to do more than one job.
|
|
b.
|
the training
takes place outside the employing organization.
|
|
c.
|
e-learning is
used as the primary mode for delivering the content of a training.
|
|
d.
|
the training
occurs through interactions and feedback among employees.
|
37. Unions view cross training unfavorably primarily because:
|
a.
|
it threatens job
jurisdiction.
|
|
b.
|
it adds
supervisory roles to part-time employees’ duties.
|
|
c.
|
it reduces
effective wages per hour.
|
|
d.
|
it increases
worker productivity, and thus threatens job security.
|
38. Which of the following best exemplifies cooperative
training?
|
a.
|
A medical school
that uses simulations where the students can perform operations without
harming real patients
|
|
b.
|
An e-learning
program on corporate leadership in which the trainee interacts with the
trainer and other trainees via a blog
|
|
c.
|
On-the-job
training in an IT firm wherein a supervisor works closely and continuously
with subordinates
|
|
d.
|
A community
college program in solar panel installation partnering with solar panel
installation companies providing internships
|
39. Lifelong Learning Accounts:
|
a.
|
are similar to
medical flexible spending accounts which are nontransferable when employees
hop jobs.
|
|
b.
|
are
government-sponsored job training programs.
|
|
c.
|
combine funds
from employers and employees to be used for the employee’s education.
|
|
d.
|
are typically
owned by the employers and not the employees.
|
40. Which of the following statements is true about
e-learning?
|
a.
|
Financial
service companies were among the last to use Internet training.
|
|
b.
|
E-learning is
not flexible enough to be used for off-the job training.
|
|
c.
|
E-learning
provides easy access to more employees than does conventional training.
|
|
d.
|
E-learning is
relatively more expensive per trainee than conventional training methods.
|
41. Andrew is enrolled in a university course on project
management. His class meets at the local community college and the instructors
present their lectures from universities in other cities using two-way
television. This best exemplifies:
|
a.
|
simulation
training.
|
|
b.
|
distance
learning.
|
|
c.
|
cross training.
|
|
d.
|
cooperative
education.
|
42. An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon
could practice a new type of operation without harming a human being or
sacrificing a laboratory animal would be called:
|
a.
|
simulation.
|
|
b.
|
blended
learning.
|
|
c.
|
cross training.
|
|
d.
|
self-guided
training.
|
43. Combining short, fast-paced, interactive computer-based
lessons and teleconferencing with traditional classroom instruction and
simulation is called:
|
a.
|
job shadowing.
|
|
b.
|
outsourcing.
|
|
c.
|
blended
learning.
|
|
d.
|
cross training.
|
44. In her evaluation sheet, Theresa, a trainer in a company,
gets very high ratings in the areas of class enjoyability and trainee
willingness to take the program again. This evaluation best exemplifies a _____
measure.
|
a.
|
reaction-level
|
|
b.
|
learning-level
|
|
c.
|
behavior-level
|
|
d.
|
cognitive-level
|
45. To qualify as a tax-preparer for a seasonal job at a
tax-preparation chain, Martin must answer written questions on tax terminology
covered in the e-learning course provided by the company. This evaluation best
exemplifies a _____ measure.
|
a.
|
results-level
|
|
b.
|
learning-level
|
|
c.
|
reaction-level
|
|
d.
|
behavior-level
|
46. At GetHelp Inc., after customer service representatives
complete training, their phone calls are monitored to determine if the they are
applying the lessons about gathering pertinent information from callers. This
evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure.
|
a.
|
reaction-level
|
|
b.
|
learning-level
|
|
c.
|
results-level
|
|
d.
|
behavior-level
|
47. Joshua, the director of training, must demonstrate to the
top management the amount of financial benefits the company has realized from
the expenditures on the mechanics training program. Joshua needs to prepare:
|
a.
|
a
return-on-investment analysis.
|
|
b.
|
a net gain
calculation.
|
|
c.
|
an actual versus
proposed budget comparison.
|
|
d.
|
a results
evaluation.
|
48. When using _____ to evaluate training, HR professionals in
an organization, typically gather data on training and compare them to data on
training at other organizations of similar size in their industry.
|
a.
|
the results
approach
|
|
b.
|
benchmarking
|
|
c.
|
cost/benefit
analysis
|
|
d.
|
return on
investment analysis approach
|
49. The best way to determine if a change in performance
resulted from training or from other factors is to use a control group combined
with:
|
a.
|
a
pre-/post-measure.
|
|
b.
|
a method of
measuring trainee skill levels before the training takes place.
|
|
c.
|
a process of
comparing training results with results from similar training programs in
other companies.
|
|
d.
|
a
return-on-investments calculation.
|
50. A problem with the pre-/post-measure of evaluating
training is:
|
a.
|
the difficulty
of constructing a good test.
|
|
b.
|
the difficulty
of knowing whether employees were randomly assigned to the control group.
|
|
c.
|
being unable to
act quickly during organizational emergencies.
|
|
d.
|
knowing if the
training was responsible for any changes in performance.
|
1. “Soft” skills are critical in many instances in a
business environment and can be taught.
2. The frequent changes to which organizations must adapt
demands at present that employees be continually trained to update their
capabilities.
3. Ideally, training should be viewed tactically rather
than strategically.
4. A strategic mind-set leads top management to understand
that training is the sole answer to most employee and organizational
performance problems.
5. Since the U.S. culture is so widely dispersed via
television, music, and the Internet, it is less necessary to conduct
intercultural training for foreigners taking jobs in the U.S. than it is for
U.S. nationals to receive intercultural training prior to foreign assignments.
6. Training plans allow organizations to identify what is
needed for employee performance before training begins.
7. Orientation is the planned introduction of new employees
to their jobs, coworkers, and the organization.
8. Assessing organizational training needs is the execution
phase of a training plan.
9. The most common approach for making individual analysis
is to use performance appraisal data.
10. A gap analysis identifies the difference between what an
individual employee knows and what the employee should know in order to perform
the job satisfactorily.
11. Carlene, a customer executive, arrives at the training
facility of the company full of enthusiasm because she is really excited about
learning how to cope with difficult customers. She has encountered a number of
intransigent customers and is eager to see what “tricks” the trainers can show
her. This shows that Carlene has the motivation to learn.
12. Active practice occurs
when trainees perform job-related tasks and duties during training.
13. In the context of active practice, spaced practice occurs
when a person performs all the practice at once.
14. The concept of reinforcement is based on the law of
effect, which states that people tend to avoid repeating actions that give them
a positive reward.
15. Immediate confirmation corrects errors that, if made and
not corrected throughout the training, might establish an undesirable pattern
that would need to be unlearned.
16. Carlene is a new usher at a performing arts center. She
was paired with Joseph, an experienced usher, for her first show. Carlene
observes Joseph during the show and imitates how he handles the guests in the
next show. This scenario illustrates the process of behavior modeling
17. A year after the equine safety program was conducted in a
riding stable, the volunteers remembered that they must always cross-tie the
horses while they groom and saddle them. From the given data, it can be
concluded that the content of the training was successfully transferred.
18. In contrast to informal training, which is planned,
on-the-job training should occur spontaneously.
19. On-the-job training is by far the most commonly used form
of training, because it can be smoothly integrated into the regular work flow.
20. On-the-job training can amount to no training if the
trainers simply allow the trainees to learn the job on their own.
21. For the employer, the advantages of cross training are
flexibility and development.
22. Like apprenticeships, internships are a type of
cooperative training.
23. Simulations seek to reproduce parts of the real world so
they can be experienced, manipulated, and learning can occur.
24. E-learning is limited in terms of accessibility compared to
leadership and cultural training.
25. E-learning is the most appropriate mode for traininings on
leadership and cultural changes.
26. E-learning can cause trainee anxiety.
27. E-learning cannot be paired with simulation.
28. Evaluating training at the behavioral level means
measuring the effect of training on job performance through observing job
performance.
29. If employees view e-learning tools such as an Internet
game that they enjoy playing and give it a high rate for value, it can be
concluded that the training has succeeded at the reaction level.
30. Combining pre-/post-measure with a control group is an
effective training evaluation design.
